Prepare for success with our latest full-length NREMT EMT practice test. This comprehensive assessment is designed to simulate the actual exam experience, helping you identify strengths and target areas for improvement before test day.
Test 7 includes 100 questions covering all five NREMT domains:
– Scene Size-Up (~17 questions)
– Primary Assessment (~42 questions)
– Secondary Assessment (~7 questions)
– Patient Treatment (~22 questions)
– Operations (~12 questions)
Pro Tips for Practice Tests:
1. Time yourself to build exam stamina.
2. Review incorrect answers to strengthen weak areas.
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Categories
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > EMS Systems 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Ethics 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Incident Command 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Legal Issues 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > MCI and Triage 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Professionalism 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Quality Improvement 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Wellness and Safety 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Airway Management 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Cardiac Arrest 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Environmental Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Medication Administration 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Obstetric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Poisoning/Overdose 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Spinal Immobilization 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Trauma Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Airway Management – Obstructed Airway 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Bleeding Control 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Diabetic Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Epinephrine 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatrics – Cardiac Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Oxygen Therapy 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Oxygen Therapy – COPD Considerations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pediatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory – Pneumonia 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory Distress 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory Emergencies – COPD 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Spinal – Transport Considerations 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Breathing Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Chief Complaint 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Initial Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness (LOC) 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Mental Status 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Determination 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Resuscitation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Scene Size-Up 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Transport Decision 0%
- Primary Assessment > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Resource Utilization 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Consent 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > SAMPLE History 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Scene Safety 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > History Taking 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > SAMPLE History 0%
- Secondary Assessment > History Taking 0%
- Secondary Assessment > SAMPLE History 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Vital Signs 0%
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1. An EMT responds to a call for a 34-year-old male with chest pain. The patient appears alert but is disoriented to time and place. The EMT wants to administer aspirin per protocol. Which statement best describes the legal situation regarding consent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Alert but disoriented + Emergency = Implied consent. The law assumes anyone would want help in an emergency.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2. A patient with chest trauma has unequal chest expansion. What should you suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Trauma + unequal chest expansion = pneumothorax or hemothorax. Check breath sounds: absent = pneumo, diminished = hemothorax. Monitor for tension.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
3. At a crime scene, what is your PRIMARY concern?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Crime scene: Patient care first, but be mindful of evidence. Don’t move things unnecessarily. Note what you see. Let police handle the investigation.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
4. You have three patients from a motor vehicle collision. Patient A has a deformed thigh and is screaming in pain. Patient B is unresponsive with sonorous respirations. Patient C is ambulatory with a laceration on the forearm. Which patient is the HIGHEST priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Priority order: Airway problems first (unresponsive, obstructed), then breathing problems, then circulation problems (bleeding, shock), then other injuries. ABC = Airway, Breathing, Circulation.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
5. What is the primary purpose of analyzing the mechanism of injury (MOI) during scene size-up?
CorrectIncorrectHint
MOI is your crystal ball—it doesn’t show you what happened, it tells you what to look for.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
6. A 68-year-old male with a history of COPD is found sitting upright in bed, using accessory muscles to breathe. He can only speak one or two words at a time. His wife reports he has been “getting worse over the past three days” with increased cough and green sputum. She also mentions he ran out of his “inhaler medications” one week ago. Which aspect of this history is MOST significant for understanding the cause of his current presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
COPD exacerbation causes: infection, medication non-compliance, and environmental triggers. Always ask about medication changes – it’s often the key to the crisis.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
7. Upon arrival at a scene where a violent assault has just occurred, what is the EMT’s FIRST priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Your safety first, then your partner, then your patient” – you cannot help anyone if you become a casualty.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
8. A 34-year-old female involved in a fall from height presents with: BP 100/68 mmHg, pulse 118, respirations 24, and skin that is cool, pale, and moist. She is alert but anxious. Based on these findings, what stage of shock is she in, and what does her blood pressure indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tachycardia + pale/cool skin + normal BP = compensated shock. The body is working hard to maintain that blood pressure.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
9. Which of the following patients should be classified as a “load-and-go” priority based solely on the general impression?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Load-and-go decisions are made within seconds of patient contact—if your general impression reveals altered mental status, respiratory distress, shock signs, or uncontrolled hemorrhage, transport immediately.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
10. After responding to a pediatric cardiac arrest where the child did not survive, you are having difficulty sleeping and feel emotionally drained. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bad calls affect everyone. Use CISD, peer support, EAP, or counseling. It’s a sign of strength to recognize when you need help. Take care of yourself to take care of others.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
11. You respond to a report of an “elderly fall victim” at a private residence. Upon arrival, an elderly woman meets you at the door and says her husband fell in the living room. As you enter, you notice: the home is extremely cluttered with narrow pathways between stacks of newspapers, multiple cats are roaming freely, the floors appear sticky, and you smell a strong odor of urine and mold. The patient is on the floor in the living room, moaning in pain. He states he fell about two hours ago and cannot get up. He appears to have a deformed left hip. Analyze the scene and determine the most appropriate approach to ensure scene safety while providing patient care.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Clutter + cats + sticky floors = fall hazards for EMS too; take 60 seconds to secure the scene before you become a patient yourself.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
12. You are assessing a 52-year-old male with chest pain. His radial pulse is strong and regular at 76 beats per minute. His skin is warm, pink, and dry. How would you characterize his circulatory status based on these findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Strong pulse + warm/pink/dry skin = good perfusion. But always reassess – cardiac patients can deteriorate rapidly.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
13. When using the “sick versus not sick” approach during the primary assessment, which of the following clinical findings would MOST strongly classify a patient as “sick”?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Sick patients look sick – pale/diaphoretic skin, respiratory distress, altered mental status, or signs of shock. Trust your visual impression in the first 10 seconds.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
14. You respond to a residence for a 58-year-old female with altered mental status. Her husband states she has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and “mini-strokes.” She was found on the floor this morning, confused and unable to move her right arm. Assessment reveals: eyes open when you call her name, she follows simple commands but cannot speak clearly, right-sided facial droop, and right arm weakness. Blood glucose is 142 mg/dL. Which interpretation of her AVPU status and likely condition is MOST accurate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Stroke = sudden onset focal neurological deficit. Time of onset (or “last known normal”) is critical – thrombolytic therapy has narrow time windows.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
15. A 68-year-old male with COPD is experiencing increased shortness of breath. He is alert but appears anxious. His respirations are 24 breaths/min with labored effort, and SpO2 reads 88%. What is the MOST appropriate oxygen delivery approach?
CorrectIncorrectHint
For COPD, target SpO2 88-92% with low-flow oxygen—enough to help, not too much to hurt.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
16. Your ambulance is dispatched to a residence for an “unconscious person.” Upon arrival, you notice through the window an unconscious male on the couch, an open pill bottle on the table, and a small child crying in the corner. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
An unconscious adult plus an unattended child is a red flag combo – secure the scene before you step in.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
17. You respond to a motor vehicle collision involving a 17-year-old female driver. She has a visible laceration on her forehead and complains of neck pain. She is alert and oriented but states she does not want to be transported and wants to go home with her parents who just arrived on scene. Her parents agree and want to take her home. What is your MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Minors can’t refuse—parents decide. But always: explain risks clearly, document thoroughly, and have the parent sign. The parent’s informed refusal protects everyone.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
18. A patient with an isolated wrist fracture wants to refuse transport. He is alert, oriented, and understands the risks. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Competent adult + non-emergent condition + informed refusal = let them refuse. Document capacity, risks explained, understanding, signature. Medical direction call if concerned.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
19. A 72-year-old nursing home resident is being evaluated for possible pneumonia. Staff report she has had a productive cough with yellow-green sputum for three days and fever. On assessment, you note decreased breath sounds over the right lower lung field. Which additional finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Elderly pneumonia patients often present “quietly” – tachypnea may be the only vital sign abnormality, and fever may be absent.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
20. You respond to an apartment complex for a reported cardiac arrest. As you enter the building with your equipment, you notice a strong odor of bitter almonds and see two other residents lying motionless in the hallway. Your partner is already at the patient’s apartment door. Analyze this situation and determine the most appropriate course of action.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bitter almonds + multiple victims down = hydrogen cyanide. Evacuate immediately, do not enter, call HazMat. This is a scene-safety emergency, not a patient-care call.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
21. When assessing a conscious patient’s mental status using the AVPU scale, what does the “P” represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
AVPU = Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive – quick mnemonic for rapid mental status assessment.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
22. You arrive at a motor vehicle collision to find a 30-year-old male driver who was unrestrained. He is walking around the scene and states he feels “fine.” You notice a small contusion on his forehead. His skin is pink, warm, and dry. What is the most accurate general impression?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Walking and talking” doesn’t guarantee stability after trauma – adrenaline can mask injuries. Maintain a high index of suspicion and perform a thorough assessment even when patients appear stable.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
23. A 32-year-old pregnant female at 38 weeks gestation is in active labor. You visualize the baby’s head crowning. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Crowning = Deliver NOW. Support perineum, control head delivery, check for nuchal cord, suction mouth then nose, dry and warm baby, deliver placenta.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
24. A 34-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is unconscious with possible spinal injury. During your primary assessment, you note his airway is partially obstructed by his tongue falling back. Which airway maneuver is MOST appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Trauma = jaw-thrust. Medical = head-tilt/chin-lift. Protect the spine while opening the airway.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
25. A 40-year-old male was found unconscious by bystanders. A bystander hands the EMT the patient’s wallet, which contains a card stating “Type 1 Diabetic – Insulin Pump.” The patient is unresponsive with rapid, deep respirations and fruity-smelling breath. Which SAMPLE component is MOST critical to confirm with bystanders?
CorrectIncorrectHint
DKA = unconscious + Kussmaul respirations + fruity breath. Timeline of deterioration is critical information. Ask bystanders: “When was he last seen normal?”
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
26. A 72-year-old male with a history of diabetes and hypertension presents with sudden onset of weakness and nausea. He describes feeling “tired and short of breath” but denies chest pain. His blood pressure is 148/94 mmHg, pulse is 92/min and irregular, respirations are 20/min. He appears diaphoretic. Which finding is most concerning for an atypical acute coronary syndrome presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Silent MI” is more common in elderly and diabetic patients – absence of chest pain does NOT rule out acute coronary syndrome. Look for diaphoresis, weakness, dyspnea, and nausea as red flags.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
27. Which of the following findings would categorize a patient as a priority patient requiring immediate transport?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Priority patients have time-critical conditions: uncontrolled bleeding, signs of shock, altered mental status, or respiratory distress.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
28. A 58-year-old diabetic male presents with confusion and altered mental status. His wife mentions he takes insulin for diabetes and has been complaining of feeling “shaky” before becoming confused. Which component of SAMPLE history is MOST relevant to his current presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Diabetic with confusion + “felt shaky” = hypoglycemia until proven otherwise. Check blood glucose immediately.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
29. Which of the following mechanisms of injury is considered a high-energy impact that requires a comprehensive trauma assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Falls >20 feet = high-energy mechanism = full trauma assessment, regardless of what surface the patient landed on.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
30. A patient with diabetes is confused and has a blood glucose of 35 mg/dL. What is the immediate treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
BG < 70 + symptoms = hypoglycemia. Can swallow? Oral glucose. Can't swallow? Position, protect airway, rapid transport. Don't give oral anything to unconscious patients.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
31. The principle of nonmaleficence in EMS practice is best described by which statement?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Nonmaleficence = “Do no harm.” Before any action, ask: “Could this hurt my patient?”
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
32. You respond to a residential fire with multiple occupants. Firefighters bring you four patients. Patient 1 is a 6-year-old child with singed nasal hairs and hoarse voice. Patient 2 is a 34-year-old pregnant female at 32 weeks gestation with minor burns to her arms. Patient 3 is a 72-year-old male with chest pain and a history of cardiac stents. Patient 4 is a 28-year-old male with a fractured ankle who is ambulatory. Based on the general impression, who is the highest priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In burns, airway is everything. Singed nasal hairs + hoarse voice = impending airway obstruction. Intubate early before edema makes it impossible.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
33. What is the minimum safe distance an EMT should maintain from a downed power line?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“35 feet or more, stay on the floor” – never step over or near downed lines; shuffle away with feet together if you’re already close.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
34. Which of the following patients should be classified as “load-and-go” based solely on the general impression during the primary assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Altered mental status = load-and-go, no exceptions. The brain doesn’t fail without a serious underlying cause.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
35. A 34-year-old female with diabetes is conscious but exhibits slurred speech and unsteady gait. Her roommate states the patient has been drinking alcohol at a party. Blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Alcohol = hypoglycemia risk! It blocks liver glucose production. Always check blood glucose in intoxicated diabetics.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
36. You respond to an assisted living facility for a 79-year-old woman with “difficulty breathing.” Upon arrival, the facility director greets you at the door and seems unusually anxious to have you evaluate the patient quickly. The patient is in bed, appears thin and frail with multiple ecchymoses in various stages of healing on her arms and upper back. She has a small, healing laceration on her lip. When you ask what happened, she looks fearfully at the facility director before quietly saying, “I fell.” Her vital signs show mild tachycardia but are otherwise stable. She has no acute respiratory distress. Which action is most appropriate for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When injuries don’t match the story AND the patient looks at someone fearfully before answering – remove that person from the room and ask what really happened.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
37. You are assessing a 34-year-old male who fell from a ladder. He is alert and complaining of severe right leg pain. His respirations are 18 per minute with adequate chest rise. His radial pulse is strong at 88 beats per minute. His skin is warm and pink. During your assessment, he suddenly becomes confused and his skin becomes pale and clammy. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Any sudden change in mental status or skin signs = immediate reassessment. Patients can deteriorate rapidly.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
38. A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with confusion and ataxia. What should you consider?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Alcoholic with confusion/ataxia? Think: Thiamine deficiency (Wernicke’s), hypoglycemia, withdrawal, head injury. Don’t just write off as “drunk.”
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
39. A 32-year-old male was struck in the face during an altercation. He has a decreased level of consciousness (responds to voice), clear fluid draining from his right ear, and bruising behind the right ear. Which airway adjunct is MOST appropriate for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Basilar skull fracture signs = Battle’s sign, raccoon eyes, CSF otorrhea/rhinorrhea = NO NPA!
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
40. You respond to a residence for a “person not feeling well.” Upon arrival, you find a 68-year-old male lying on the couch. His wife states he complained of “indigestion” earlier and has been lying down for two hours. During your primary assessment, you note the following: He responds to verbal stimuli by opening his eyes and mumbling incomprehensible sounds. His respirations are 8 per minute and shallow with poor chest rise. His radial pulse is weak and irregular at approximately 120 beats per minute. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. His blood pressure is 82/58 mmHg. His wife tells you he has a history of “heart problems” and takes several cardiac medications. What is your PRIORITY intervention and transport decision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Altered mental status + inadequate breathing + shock signs = immediate BVM ventilation and rapid transport. Do not delay for diagnostics.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
41. During an MCI, you encounter a patient with a partial amputation of the foot with controlled bleeding who can walk. Using START triage, how should this patient be categorized?
CorrectIncorrectHint
START triage first question: “Can you walk?” Walking patients = Minimal (Green) and are directed to a collection point. Don’t reassess them until non-walking patients are triaged.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
42. What is the purpose of determining the mechanism of injury (MOI)?
CorrectIncorrectHint
MOI = what happened and how bad. Fall from height = spine, pelvis, calcaneus. Steering wheel deformity = chest, cardiac. Use MOI to guide what you look for.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
43. An EMT is called to care for a patient with severe vomiting and diarrhea. The patient estimates they have vomited at least five times in the past hour. Which PPE selection is MOST appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Repeated vomiting = splash risk = gown and eye protection plus gloves.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
44. A 28-year-old male fell 15 feet from a ladder and landed on his left side. He is alert but guarding his left flank. His blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, pulse is 118 beats/minute, and skin is cool and diaphoretic. When obtaining SAMPLE history, he reports taking no medications and having no medical conditions. His wife mentions he had surgery three years ago to remove a “growth on his kidney” but isn’t sure of the details. Based on the mechanism of injury, vital signs, and history, which finding should prompt the EMT to have the HIGHEST index of suspicion for life-threatening hemorrhage?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tachycardia + cool/clammy skin = shock until proven wrong. In trauma with flank pain, think spleen or kidney laceration – rapid transport Code 3.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
45. What is the correct sequence for hemorrhage control in an extremity with severe bleeding?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Direct pressure first, tourniquet last” – remember the escalation sequence for extremity bleeding.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
46. A 22-year-old male fell through the ice on a frozen pond. He was submerged for approximately 10 minutes and is now unresponsive with a core temperature of 86°F (30°C). What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypothermia: Remove wet clothes, insulate, handle gently (cold heart is irritable), check pulse for 60 seconds, warm slowly. “Cold and dead” may still survive – warm before pronouncing.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
47. You respond to a residence for a 58-year-old male with difficulty breathing. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting in a tripod position, using accessory muscles, with audible wheezing. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. He is able to speak in short phrases only. What is the PRIMARY reason this patient should be classified as high transport priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Multiple critical findings together = high priority. Look for patterns of distress, not isolated findings.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
48. You are called to a domestic disturbance where a woman reports being assaulted. Her husband is present and appears intoxicated. He is pacing and yelling at your patient. Law enforcement has not yet arrived. What is the most appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Stage safely for any call involving domestic disturbance, weapons, or combativeness – let law enforcement secure before you enter.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
49. A 34-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction after being stung by a bee. He presents with facial swelling, difficulty speaking, a rapid onset of stridor, and widespread hives. His SpO2 is 90% on room air, and he is using accessory muscles to breathe. Which intervention takes priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In anaphylaxis with airway compromise, epinephrine is the priority—it treats the cause while oxygen only treats the symptom.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
50. You arrive at a scene with multiple agencies responding (fire, police, EMS). Who is responsible for coordinating all agencies during the incident?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ICS provides unified command across all agencies. IC coordinates everyone. For multi-agency incidents, Unified Command with representatives from each agency may be established.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
51. A 7-month-old infant presents with irritability, poor feeding, and a bulging anterior fontanelle. The mother reports the infant has had a fever for the past day and vomited twice this morning. On assessment, you note the infant is listless and has a high-pitched cry when disturbed. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bulging fontanelle + fever + high-pitched cry = meningitis until proven otherwise—oxygen, airway, and rapid transport.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
52. You and your partner are performing two-rescuer CPR on a 6-month-old infant in cardiac arrest. After 2 minutes of high-quality CPR, your partner asks how long until you should switch roles. What is the correct response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Switch compressors every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality CPR. Fatigue causes poor compressions before you realize it.”
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
53. A patient opens eyes only to painful stimuli, makes incomprehensible sounds, and extends to pain. What is the GCS?
CorrectIncorrectHint
E2 (to pain) + V2 (sounds) + M2 (extension) = GCS 6. Extension = decerebrate posturing = severe brain injury.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
54. You are assessing a 5-year-old child who was found unresponsive in a swimming pool. Bystanders report the child was underwater for an unknown period. Upon your arrival, the child is unresponsive, not breathing, and has a weak pulse at 60 beats per minute. You open the airway and note water draining from the mouth. After suctioning, you deliver two rescue breaths and see the chest rise. The child remains unresponsive but begins gasping. His pulse is now 52 beats per minute. What is your interpretation and immediate management priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Gasping ≠ breathing. Bradycardia with poor perfusion in a child = imminent cardiac arrest. BVM ventilation and prepare for CPR.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
55. You respond to an industrial park for a report of an unconscious person. As you approach, you notice a large tanker truck with a placard displaying “3077” in an orange panel. A worker flags you down, saying his colleague collapsed while unloading the truck. There is a slight breeze blowing from the truck toward your position. Analyze this scene and determine the most appropriate initial response.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Orange placards = Hazmat; unconscious person near chemical = toxic exposure until proven otherwise. Stage, stay safe, call the experts.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
56. You respond to a construction site where a 45-year-old male fell 15 feet onto concrete. Coworkers state he landed on his back and complained of severe back pain before becoming “drowsy.” On primary assessment, his airway is patent with clear breath sounds bilaterally. His respirations are 24 per minute. You note a heart rate of 52 beats per minute, and his skin is warm and dry. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. He responds to verbal stimuli but is confused. Based on these findings, what type of shock is MOST likely, and what finding supports this diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Neurogenic shock triad: Hypotension + Bradycardia + Warm, dry skin. This differs from other shock types where tachycardia and vasoconstriction are expected.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
57. A 58-year-old male with a history of angina calls 911 for chest pain that began 30 minutes ago. He has taken two of his own nitroglycerin tablets (0.4 mg each) 5 minutes apart with no relief. His current vital signs are: BP 142/88 mmHg, pulse 78/min, respirations 16/min. He asks if you can give him a third dose. What should you tell him?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unrelieved chest pain after nitroglycerin is a red flag – the patient may be having an acute MI. Contact medical direction and prepare for rapid transport.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
58. A 32-year-old male has a deep laceration to his forearm with significant bleeding. You have applied direct pressure and a pressure dressing. The bleeding has slowed but his radial pulse is barely palpable and very rapid. What should you do next?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Radial pulse disappears at systolic BP around 80 mmHg; carotid pulse disappears around 60 mmHg – checking both helps estimate severity.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
59. During a cardiac arrest resuscitation, an EMT makes an error in medication dosing. The error is caught immediately and corrected, but the EMT is embarrassed. When completing the patient care report, the EMT considers omitting the error to avoid scrutiny. Which action demonstrates the HIGHEST level of professionalism?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Professionalism = own your mistakes, document them, learn from them. Hidden errors can’t be fixed system-wide.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
60. During CPR, you feel a carotid pulse return but the patient is still not breathing adequately. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation) but no breathing? BVM rescue breathing. Adult: 10-12/min. Monitor for return of spontaneous breathing.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
61. You are obtaining a SAMPLE history from a 45-year-old female with abdominal pain. Which component of SAMPLE directly guides your decision about whether to administer nitroglycerin for suspected cardiac chest pain?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Before nitroglycerin, ALWAYS ask: “Have you taken any medications for erectile dysfunction in the past 24-48 hours?” It’s a life-saving question that comes from the “M” in SAMPLE.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
62. A 52-year-old woman is found unresponsive in her home. Family states she has a history of alcoholism. On assessment, she does not open her eyes to voice, but opens her eyes and withdraws from a sternal rub. She moans but does not form words. What is her AVPU level and GCS score?
CorrectIncorrectHint
AVPU and GCS are complementary – AVPU is quick; GCS provides detail. A “P” patient typically has GCS 6-8.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
63. You are called to a residence for a 67-year-old male with chest pain. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting in a chair, diaphoretic, clutching his chest. He states the pain started 20 minutes ago and describes it as “crushing.” His skin is pale and cool. Blood pressure is 148/94 mmHg, pulse is 98 bpm and irregular, respiratory rate is 22. He has a history of hypertension and diabetes. He is alert but appears anxious. Based on your primary assessment findings, which of the following represents the most accurate interpretation and priority status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Crushing chest pain + diaphoresis + irregular pulse = think STEMI until proven otherwise—time is myocardium.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
64. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a designated trauma center within an EMS system?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Trauma center = “Level I, II, III, IV” – higher levels mean more resources. Know your local trauma center levels and destinations.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
65. Which airway adjunct is appropriate for a patient who is semi-conscious with an intact gag reflex?
CorrectIncorrectHint
OPA = unconscious, no gag; NPA = semi-conscious, intact gag (but not with basilar skull fracture).
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
66. You are assessing a 3-year-old child at a playground. The child is sitting upright, crying loudly, and has pink, warm skin. The parent reports the child fell off a swing and hurt her arm. Based on your general impression, how would you categorize this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A crying child with good color is usually reassuring – loud crying means a good airway and adequate breathing.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
67. A 19-year-old male is unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and slow, shallow respirations (8 breaths/min). Friends report he may have taken “something.” What should you suspect and do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Opioid Toxidrome: CNS depression + Pinpoint pupils + Respiratory depression = Opioids. Naloxone reverses it. Titrate to adequate respirations, not full alertness.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
68. A 28-year-old female was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She was an unrestrained driver. She is alert but confused. Her skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. Blood pressure is 94/62 mmHg, pulse is 128 bpm, respirations are 28. She reports abdominal pain and you note distension and tenderness to palpation. Capillary refill is 4 seconds. Based on these findings, what is your assessment of this patient’s condition and the primary pathophysiology?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypotension in trauma = decompensated shock = the body has lost the battle—you’re in the rescue phase now.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
69. An unresponsive patient has vomited. After suctioning, what should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Vomiting unresponsive patient: Suction → recovery position (unless trauma/spinal concern). If spinal, log-roll and suction as needed. Prevent aspiration.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
70. Which oxygen saturation target is MOST appropriate for a patient with COPD who requires supplemental oxygen?
CorrectIncorrectHint
COPD patients live low; target 88-92% to keep them breathing.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
71. Which pulse site is preferred when assessing circulation in an unresponsive infant?
CorrectIncorrectHint
For infants, think “brachial is best” – check the inside of the upper arm.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
72. During a mass casualty incident, you encounter a patient with the following: RR 24, capillary refill 3 seconds, follows commands. Using START triage, what tag should be applied?
CorrectIncorrectHint
START triage: RPM = Respiration, Perfusion, Mental status. Normal RPM = Delayed. Abnormal R or P or M = Immediate. Can’t follow commands = Immediate.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
73. You arrive at a residence for a reported fall and find the front door open. You hear arguing inside and see broken glass on the porch. What is your most appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Arguing + broken glass = domestic violence warning sign → stage for police; never enter until law enforcement secures the scene.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
74. You approach a patient and immediately notice pale, cool, diaphoretic skin and a weak, thready pulse. What is your general impression?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Sick vs not sick” assessment: Pale/cool/diaphoretic + weak pulse = SICK = shock until proven otherwise. Act fast, this patient is unstable.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
75. You respond to an industrial park for a reported “person down.” As you approach, you notice an overturned tanker truck with a visible placard displaying the number 3077. Several workers are lying motionless on the ground nearby. What should be your immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Multiple victims down + hazmat placard = stay away, stage uphill/upwind, call for HazMat. Never become a patient yourself.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
76. What is the appropriate flow rate range for a nasal cannula when administering oxygen to a patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Nasal cannula = 1-6 LPM, 24-44% O2 – best for mild hypoxia and patient comfort during transport.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
77. Your agency has implemented a new protocol for cardiac arrest management. After several months, you notice the survival rate has improved. What QI activity does this represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Outcome analysis = measuring results. Did the protocol work? Better outcomes = success. Poor outcomes = reevaluate. Data drives improvement.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
78. When forming a general impression of a patient, which observation would be MOST concerning?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Pale, sweaty, and scared = sick until proven otherwise.”
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
79. You recognize a patient as a coworker from your other job. The patient asks you not to tell anyone about this call. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Know the patient? Still document, still maintain privacy. Don’t gossip about any call, especially when you know the patient. What happens on the ambulance stays confidential.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
80. While assessing a 6-year-old child with a fever, the EMT obtains the following vital signs: heart rate 128, respiratory rate 32, blood pressure 100/64, and temperature 39.2°C (102.6°F). Based on these findings, which statement is MOST accurate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Fever = higher heart rate and respiratory rate. For every 1°C fever, expect HR to increase 10-15 bpm. Assess the child’s overall appearance and perfusion, not just the numbers.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
81. You are preparing to transport a 55-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs. She has midline cervical spine tenderness and bilateral arm weakness. Vital signs are stable. The nearest trauma center is 45 minutes away, while a community hospital is 10 minutes away. What is the MOST appropriate transport decision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Spinal cord injury symptoms = trauma center directly. Don’t waste time at a facility that can’t provide definitive neurosurgical care.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
82. During the primary assessment, which pulse site should be palpated in an unresponsive adult patient when the radial pulse is not palpable?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive adult with no radial pulse = check carotid. No carotid pulse = start CPR immediately.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
83. You respond to a 56-year-old male with difficulty breathing. Upon entering the apartment, you note a strong smell of urine. The patient is sitting in a recliner, appears cachectic, and has a barrel-shaped chest. He is using accessory muscles and pursed-lip breathing. His skin is pale with a bluish tint around the lips. He can only speak one word at a time. He has an oxygen tank nearby but appears too weak to adjust it. What is your general impression, most likely diagnosis, and immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Barrel chest + pursed-lip breathing + cyanosis + one-word dyspnea = COPD exacerbation with impending respiratory failure. Prepare to assist ventilations.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
84. A 28-year-old male is eating at a restaurant when he begins coughing forcefully and points to his throat. He is able to speak in short phrases between coughs. What is the most appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Mild obstruction (good cough, can speak) = stand back and encourage coughing. Severe obstruction (cannot speak, cannot cough, cyanosis) = act immediately with abdominal thrusts.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
85. A patient opens their eyes when you call their name, looks at you, and answers questions appropriately. How would you document their AVPU status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
AVPU is assessed in order: Alert → Verbal → Pain → Unresponsive. Start at the top and work down until you find the patient’s level.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
86. Dispatch reports a 45-year-old male with sudden onset difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee. He is conscious but struggling to breathe, with facial swelling. Based on this NOI, what resources should be immediately requested?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Anaphylaxis = ALS. Airway can close in minutes. Epinephrine saves lives.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
87. An EMT responds to a patient who fell down a flight of stairs. The patient is complaining of back pain and has visible bruising along the spine. During initial assessment, the EMT notes the patient’s cervical collar has been removed by a well-meaning family member who stated, “It was hurting his neck.” The patient is now sitting up and moving his head. What is the most appropriate analysis of this situation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Never remove cervical collars before spinal clearance—and educate bystanders that discomfort doesn’t justify removal.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
88. A 72-year-old patient with severe COPD is experiencing dyspnea. His baseline SpO2 is typically 88-90%. He is currently alert but anxious, with SpO2 reading 84%. His respiratory rate is 24/min. What is the most appropriate oxygen therapy?
CorrectIncorrectHint
COPD patient with acute hypoxemia = treat it. Start low (2 L/min NC), titrate to 90-94% or their baseline, and monitor for improvement.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
89. A 62-year-old male complains of chest pain. When asked about medications, he says, “I take pills for my blood pressure and my cholesterol, plus some vitamins.” Which response is MOST appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Always get specific medication names – “water pill” could mean several things, and hospital staff need to know exactly what the patient takes.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
90. You respond to a fall at a nursing home. Staff report a 78-year-old female fell from bed approximately one hour ago. She has a history of dementia, hypertension, and atrial fibrillation. On your general impression, you note she is lying supine in bed, appears comfortable, and is oriented to person only. Staff state she “seems like her normal self.” She denies pain when asked. Her vital signs are BP 118/72, pulse 72 and irregular, respirations 16. Despite the normal appearance, analyze which factor most strongly indicates this patient should be considered high priority.
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric trauma, the absence of findings can be more dangerous than their presence—elderly patients can “look fine” while bleeding internally.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
91. A 71-year-old male with chest pain is being assessed. His wife provides most of the history, stating he has “heart problems,” takes “heart pills and blood thinners,” and had “some kind of heart surgery years ago.” The patient nods in agreement but adds nothing. The EMT notes the patient appears pale and diaphoretic. Given this interaction, which consideration is MOST important?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric patients, a sudden change in responsiveness (or unresponsiveness) during a medical emergency is a red flag. Note baseline mental status and any acute changes.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
92. An EMT is preparing to apply a cervical collar to a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. When measuring for collar size, the EMT should measure from which anatomical landmarks?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chin tip to shoulder top—measure vertically to ensure neutral alignment.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
93. A 23-year-old female with type 1 diabetes is unresponsive. Her blood glucose is 18 mg/dL. You note she is wearing an insulin pump. After positioning her airway, which intervention should you prioritize?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Insulin pump + hypoglycemia = disconnect the pump! It’s pouring fuel (insulin) on the fire (low glucose). Stop the source.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
94. You respond to a pedestrian struck by a vehicle. Witnesses report the car was traveling approximately 35 mph, and the patient was thrown approximately 30 feet. What is the significance of this mechanism?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pedestrian vs. car = pedestrian loses every time – full trauma assessment is non-negotiable.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
95. A 35-year-old male is experiencing anaphylaxis after a bee sting. He is conscious but has significant facial swelling, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. His BP is 88/54 mmHg. You have an adult epinephrine auto-injector available. After administering the medication, how long should you hold the auto-injector in place?
CorrectIncorrectHint
3-10 seconds hold time – long enough for complete delivery, short enough to move on to other care.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
96. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for an EMT to request ALS (Advanced Life Support) backup during scene size-up?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When in doubt about whether ALS is needed, call early—you can always cancel, but you can’t make up for lost time.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
97. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In every unconscious patient, assume the tongue is blocking the airway until proven otherwise—position first, then assess breathing.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
98. A 34-year-old male is found sitting on the curb after a motor vehicle collision. He is holding his chest and says, “It hurts when I breathe.” His skin is pale and diaphoretic. Based on your general impression, what is your INITIAL determination about this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Sick” patients need rapid intervention; “not sick” patients can tolerate a more thorough assessment. Don’t wait for vital signs to determine urgency.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
99. You respond to a bicycle versus motor vehicle collision. The 28-year-old cyclist was struck from behind by a car traveling approximately 40 mph. Witnesses report the cyclist was thrown over the handlebars and landed on the pavement, striking their head. They were wearing a helmet. The patient is now unconscious with a deformed helmet and a visible crack in the helmet’s outer shell. Based on this mechanism and presentation, what is your index of suspicion?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cracked/deformed helmet = significant force transmitted. Unconsciousness = severe head injury until proven otherwise. High-speed ejection = c-spine precautions mandatory.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
100. You are the first unit on scene of a multi-vehicle collision involving a tour bus, two passenger cars, and a tanker truck carrying an unknown product. You observe approximately 30-40 people of various ages walking around or sitting on the ground, some with visible injuries. You notice a hissing sound coming from the tanker and a strong chemical odor. What is your MOST appropriate sequence of actions?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In mass casualty incidents with hazmat potential, the sequence is: Scene safety → HazMat notification → Resource request → Incident command → Triage/treatment. Never put rescuers in danger before the scene is secured.
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