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Categories
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Communications 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Documentation 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > EMS Systems 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Ethics 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Hazardous Materials 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Incident Command 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Legal Issues 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Medical Direction 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Medical/Legal & Ethics 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Professionalism 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Vehicle Operations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > BVM Ventilation 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Cardiac Arrest 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Medication Administration 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Pharmacology 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Trauma Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Airway Management – Basic Airway Adjuncts 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Diabetic Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Epinephrine 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatrics – Fall Assessment 0%
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- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory Emergencies – Anaphylaxis 0%
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- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Breathing Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Initial Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness (LOC) 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Transport Decision 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of NREMT EMT exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of NREMT EMT exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment > Airway & Breathing 0%
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- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Scene Safety 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > History Taking 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > SAMPLE History 0%
- Secondary Assessment > OPQRST 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Physical Exam 0%
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1. A 72-year-old female is found lying in bed at a nursing home. Staff reports she was “fine this morning.” On assessment, she does not open her eyes when you speak to her, but she moans and pulls away when you pinch her trapezius. What is her AVPU status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Sudden onset of altered LOC in an elderly patient should trigger stroke assessment (FAST exam) and blood glucose check immediately.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2. You arrive on scene to find a single-vehicle collision with the driver still inside. What is the FIRST piece of information you should determine during scene size-up?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Scene size-up order: Scene safety → Number of patients → MOI/NOI → Additional resources needed.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
3. You are treating an unresponsive 34-year-old female with a suspected drug overdose. Her respirations are 6 per minute and shallow. You attempt to insert an OPA but she gags when you place it at the back of her throat. What should be your next action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Gag reflex = no OPA; switch to NPA for patients who cannot tolerate the oral airway.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
4. Which statement best explains why compensated shock can be missed during initial assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Blood pressure is a LATE sign of shock—a “normal” BP does NOT rule out significant blood loss; assess heart rate, skin signs, and mental status for early detection.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
5. You are treating an unresponsive patient in respiratory distress. During airway management, you notice the patient has oral candidiasis (white patches in the mouth) and appears cachectic. What is your most appropriate action regarding PPE?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Oral thrush in a thin, ill-appearing patient = think immunocompromise = enhance your precautions.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
6. A patient has a blood pressure of 100/70 with a heart rate of 130. What do these findings suggest?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tachycardia + low-normal BP = suspicious for shock. Body compensating. Look for other signs: skin changes, mental status, cause of shock. Treat cause.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
7. Which of the following patients would benefit most from high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask?
CorrectIncorrectHint
NRB is for significant hypoxemia or critical illness. SpO2 below 94% in a serious patient = high-flow oxygen is usually the right call.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
8. Under HIPAA regulations, which principle requires EMTs to share only the minimum amount of patient information necessary to accomplish the intended purpose?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Minimum necessary = share only what’s needed, nothing extra—even in healthcare settings.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
9. Who has the authority to expand the Incident Command System by establishing branches, divisions, or groups?
CorrectIncorrectHint
IC = in charge. Only IC can expand ICS structure, request resources, set objectives, and delegate authority. When IC is transferred, it must be documented.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
10. What is the minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) an EMT should don before providing care to a patient with active respiratory symptoms and a productive cough?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Respiratory symptoms = three-piece minimum: gloves, mask, AND eye protection—don’t forget the goggles!
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
11. A 45-year-old male has a deep laceration on his forearm with bright red blood flowing steadily. After applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing for 5 minutes, the bleeding continues to soak through. What should the EMT do next?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bleeding control sequence: Direct pressure → Elevation → Pressure points → Tourniquet. Never remove saturated dressings – add more on top.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
12. You are providing BVM ventilations to an apneic adult patient. After each squeeze, you notice the patient’s stomach is becoming increasingly distended. What is the MOST likely cause and appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Gastric distension = air in stomach = bad seal or too much pressure. Fix the seal first, then consider cricoid pressure (Sellick maneuver).
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
13. You are assessing an unresponsive 68-year-old male. You open his airway using the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and hear gurgling sounds. What is your IMMEDIATE action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Gurgling = fluid in airway = suction immediately. Never attempt to ventilate through fluid.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
14. You are dispatched to an assault at a bar. Upon arrival, police have secured the scene. A 45-year-old male was struck in the head and face multiple times with a baseball bat. He is conscious but combative, with visible swelling and deformity to the left side of his face. His left eye is swollen shut, and you note clear fluid draining from his left ear. He is agitated and trying to stand despite your instructions. What do these findings indicate, and what is your priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Battle’s sign, raccoon eyes, or CSF from ear/nose = basilar skull fracture. Combativeness after head trauma = possible increased ICP. Prioritize c-spine, airway, rapid transport.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
15. You respond to a nursing home for a 76-year-old female with altered mental status. Staff report she was normal yesterday but today is difficult to arouse and “not making sense.” Assessment reveals a GCS of 11, blood glucose of 380 mg/dL, and deep, rapid respirations at 28 breaths per minute. Her skin is warm and dry. Which condition is most likely, and what metabolic process is occurring?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Kussmaul breathing + high glucose + gradual onset = DKA – the lungs are trying to fix the acidosis by blowing off CO2.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
16. A patient is lying still on the floor and appears to be sleeping. When you approach, you notice uneven chest rise. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Uneven chest rise = abnormal. Could be diaphragm injury, pneumothorax, flail chest. Don’t assume sleep. Assess immediately.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
17. You are caring for a patient who claims to have no pain but is grimacing and guarding their abdomen. How should you document this?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Document: What the patient says + What you observe. “Denies pain but guarding present” is complete and objective. No judgments about honesty.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
18. You are assessing a 34-year-old male patient who was involved in a house fire. He is conscious but agitated, with soot around his nose and mouth. His respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, and you note inspiratory stridor. His SpO2 reading on room air is 88%. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Soot + stridor = impending airway disaster” – patients with inhalation injury can deteriorate rapidly; early high-flow oxygen and airway preparation are critical.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
19. You respond to a factory where workers are reporting difficulty breathing and nausea. You notice a yellow placard with a number 6 on a storage container. What does this indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Placard 6 = Poison/toxic. White background = poison or infectious. Workers with breathing difficulty + toxic placard = HazMat call. Stage safely upwind.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
20. A 28-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle crash. He has a partially amputated right leg below the knee with pulsatile bright red bleeding. The EMT applies direct pressure, but blood continues to spurt. The patient’s skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. His radial pulse is absent, but carotid pulse is present. What is the patient’s estimated blood pressure range, and what intervention is most critical?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pulsatile bright red blood = arterial bleed; absent radial pulse = SBP <80; failed direct pressure + extremity hemorrhage = tourniquet immediately, don't delay.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
21. Which of the following best describes the principle of early resource activation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Better to cancel than to wait – early calls save lives.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
22. A patient has a regular radial pulse of 110 beats per minute. What is this called?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult HR: 100 = tachycardia. Tachycardia causes: pain, anxiety, shock, fever, dehydration, bleeding, cardiac issues.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
23. A patient has audible wheezing. What does this indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Wheezing = lower airway narrowing = asthma, COPD, anaphylaxis, bronchitis. Bronchodilators (albuterol) help. Listen for silent chest = severe obstruction.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
24. A 7-year-old boy with a history of asthma is experiencing an acute exacerbation. His mother states he has used his albuterol inhaler twice in the past hour with minimal improvement. The child is alert but anxious, with diffuse wheezing, intercostal retractions, and SpO2 of 91% on room air. His respiratory rate is 32. What is your MOST appropriate action regarding albuterol?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In acute asthma, if the patient is still wheezing and in distress, albuterol is still indicated – previous doses not working means the attack is severe, not that more albuterol won’t help.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
25. A patient has crackles (rales) heard in both lung bases. What condition does this suggest?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Crackles (rales) = fluid in alveoli = pulmonary edema, pneumonia, or fluid overload. Wet lungs. Common in CHF.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
26. A 67-year-old male with severe COPD presents with acute respiratory distress. He is using accessory muscles, cannot speak in full sentences, and has SpO2 of 89% on room air. He appears exhausted. What makes this patient a priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In COPD patients, exhaustion is the red flag that differentiates compensated distress from impending failure.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
27. You respond to a nursing home for a 78-year-old female with “altered mental status.” On arrival, staff report she was found unresponsive in bed this morning. Your general impression reveals an elderly female lying motionless in bed. She does not respond to your voice. When you squeeze her shoulder firmly, she grimaces but does not open her eyes. Her skin is pale and very cool to touch, and you note mottling on her arms and legs. Her breathing is irregular with periods of apnea lasting 10-15 seconds. Analyze this general impression and determine the most likely clinical picture.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Mottling + irregular breathing + responds only to pain = pre-arrest state. This patient is dying in front of you.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
28. What is the primary purpose of an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?
CorrectIncorrectHint
OPA = keeps tongue off posterior pharynx. Only for patients with no gag reflex. Measure: corner of mouth to earlobe. Wrong size = ineffective or harmful.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
29. You are caring for an unconscious 34-year-old male who was found down at a construction site. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 6, shallow respirations at 8/min, and no gag reflex. Which airway adjunct is most appropriate for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
No gag reflex = OPA okay. Gag reflex present = NPA only. When in doubt about the gag reflex, use an NPA to avoid causing vomiting.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
30. A 22-year-old female fell from a third-story apartment window. Witnesses report she landed on her back on concrete. She is conscious and complaining of severe back pain. Based on the mechanism, which assessment approach is most appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Falls from significant height = full trauma assessment + spinal precautions, regardless of what the patient says hurts.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
31. A 62-year-old male with chest pain has a blood pressure of 110/70 and is sweating. He has a prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following is a contraindication to administering this medication?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Viagra + Nitro = Severe Hypotension.” Wait 24 hours after sildenafil, 48 hours after tadalafil before administering nitroglycerin.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
32. A patient responds to a painful stimulus by pulling away from the stimulus but does not open their eyes or respond to verbal commands. According to the AVPU scale, how should this patient’s level of consciousness be documented?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“P” on AVPU doesn’t mean they feel pain—it means they only respond TO pain. A patient who pulls away from pain has a better neurological status than one who is unresponsive.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
33. Which of the following patient presentations would be classified as the HIGHEST transport priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cardiac arrest trumps everything – immediately begin CPR and use the AED while preparing for lights-and-siren transport to the closest appropriate facility.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
34. An EMT is obtaining a blood pressure on a 72-year-old female with dizziness. The EMT inflates the cuff to 180 mmHg and begins slowly releasing the pressure. The first Korotkoff sound is heard at 156 mmHg, and the sounds disappear at 88 mmHg. Which documentation is MOST accurate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
First sound heard = systolic. Sound disappears = diastolic. Document as systolic/diastolic (e.g., 120/80). The inflation pressure is not part of the reading.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
35. Which of the following patients should be classified as the HIGHEST transport priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Absent radial pulses = systolic BP likely <80 mmHg. This patient is in shock and needs immediate transport.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
36. A 28-year-old male with difficulty breathing states, “I’m allergic to penicillin.” Which response should the EMT provide NEXT?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Allergy” can mean anything from “it gives me a headache” to “my throat swells shut.” Always ask what happens!
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
37. When forming a general impression of a patient, which combination of findings suggests a “sick” appearance requiring immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Trust your gut—if a patient looks “sick” (pale, sweaty, anxious, struggling to breathe), they probably ARE sick regardless of vital signs.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
38. You respond to a factory where a worker has been splashed with an unknown chemical. The patient is conscious and alert, complaining of burning eyes and skin pain. A safety data sheet is not immediately available, but coworkers mention the chemical is in a drum labeled “Industrial Solvent.” What is your FIRST priority regarding PPE and scene safety?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unknown chemical = unknown danger. Stay back, call HazMat, let the experts make it safe.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
39. You are assessing a 68-year-old female with a history of atrial fibrillation who complains of sudden onset of weakness and dizziness. Her blood pressure is 88/54 mmHg, heart rate is 156 and irregular, and her skin is cool and pale. She is alert but appears anxious. What is the MOST likely cause of her circulatory compromise?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A-fib + rapid rate + hypotension = inadequate filling time causing cardiogenic compromise. Rate control saves lives.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
40. A 22-year-old male was found unconscious at a college party. Bystanders state he was drinking heavily. On assessment, his eyes are closed, he does not respond to verbal stimuli, and when you apply a sternal rub, he extends his arms and legs with internal rotation. Using the AVPU scale, what is this patient’s level of consciousness, and what is your primary concern?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Decerebrate posturing (extension with internal rotation) indicates brainstem involvement – this is never “just intoxication” and requires immediate transport.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
41. You respond to a two-vehicle collision. Driver A is ambulatory with neck pain. Driver B is trapped in the vehicle with an obvious deformity to the thigh and is screaming in pain. A passenger in Driver B’s vehicle is unresponsive with a weak, thready pulse. Which patient is your highest priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In multiple patient scenarios, prioritize: unconscious > altered mental status > severe bleeding > fractures > ambulatory patients.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
42. A 72-year-old female is found confused and weak. Her husband reports she has diabetes, hypertension, and “had a small stroke last year.” She takes metformin, lisinopril, and “some other pills.” Her skin is warm and dry, pulse is 98 and regular, respirations are 18, and BP is 146/84. Blood glucose reads 42 mg/dL. Given this presentation, which question would be MOST critical to ask NEXT?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoglycemia in a diabetic on medication usually means: too much medication, too little food, or both. Food intake history is critical.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
43. A 55-year-old male was the unrestrained driver in a moderate-speed motor vehicle collision. The vehicle sustained significant front-end damage, and the steering column is bent. The patient is alert and oriented, complaining of mild neck pain and pain in his left wrist, which has an obvious deformity. He states he “hit the steering wheel hard.” His vital signs are stable. Which finding would most strongly indicate the need for spinal motion restriction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Mechanism of injury plus spinal pain = SMR. Document the mechanism but act on the clinical findings.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
44. A 70-year-old female complains of dizziness and weakness. During your primary assessment, you find her skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. Her radial pulse is irregular and thready at 92 beats per minute. She reports a history of “heart problems.” What do these findings suggest about her circulatory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Irregular pulse + shock signs + cardiac history = cardiac emergency until proven otherwise.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
45. You are driving in emergency mode and approach a school bus with its red lights flashing and stop sign extended. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
School bus with red lights = STOP. Always. Even emergency vehicles. Children can’t hear sirens over the bus engine. Wait for lights to turn off.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
46. You are called to care for a patient with significant bleeding from a leg wound. What PPE should you don before making patient contact?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Standard precautions for bleeding: Gloves + eye protection at minimum. Add gown for extensive bleeding or anticipated spray. Protect yourself first!
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
47. A 45-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. During the rapid trauma assessment, the EMT notes deformity, contusions, and swelling to the right thigh. The right leg appears shorter than the left and is externally rotated. Palpation reveals crepitus. Based on these findings, which injury should the EMT suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Femur fracture can lose 1-2 liters of blood internally. Look for signs of shock even without external bleeding.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
48. A 72-year-old male with a history of stroke presents with labored breathing. During your assessment, you note stridorous sounds during inspiration, significant accessory muscle use, and the patient is unable to speak more than one or two words at a time. His oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. What is your priority intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
One-word dyspnea (unable to speak full sentences) indicates severe respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention beyond oxygen alone.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
49. Which of the following medications can an EMT administer without requiring prior authorization or medical direction approval for each specific administration?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Epinephrine is the ONLY medication an EMT can fully administer without it being the patient’s own prescription or requiring real-time medical direction approval for each use.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
50. An EMT with 10 years of experience is paired with a new EMT who graduated last month. During a cardiac arrest, the experienced EMT notices the new EMT performing CPR compressions that are too shallow. The experienced EMT is frustrated and wants to take over. Considering professional development, team dynamics, and patient care, what is the MOST appropriate approach?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Real-time coaching + patient safety = professional mentorship. Correct kindly, teach constantly, take over if needed.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
51. A patient presents with a significant mechanism of injury but has no spinal pain, no tenderness on palpation, is alert and oriented, has no neurological deficits, and has no evidence of intoxication. Which additional finding would still indicate the need for spinal motion restriction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Distracting injuries stand alone as an indication for SMR—a patient can meet all other clearance criteria but still require SMR if a distracting injury is present.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
52. You respond to a single-vehicle collision on an isolated country road at 0300 hours. The vehicle struck a utility pole at moderate speed. One patient is trapped with obvious leg deformity, conscious but in severe pain. Power lines are down on the vehicle. You are the first unit on scene with a 25-minute ETA for additional resources. Analyze this scenario and determine the appropriate initial action.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Downed power lines = do not approach. Scene safety over patient care. Every time.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
53. In an unresponsive adult patient with no suspected spinal injury, where should the EMT first assess for a pulse during the primary assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Central pulses (carotid, femoral) persist longer than peripheral pulses during shock – always check carotid first in unresponsive adults.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
54. You respond to a residence for a 62-year-old male with “difficulty breathing.” As you enter the room, you observe him sitting on the edge of the bed in a tripod position, using accessory muscles, with visible diaphoresis on his forehead. He attempts to speak but can only manage one or two words between breaths. Based on your general impression, what is your immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
One-word dyspnea plus tripod positioning = critical respiratory distress. Oxygen first, questions later.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
55. You are treating a patient who is actively vomiting bright red blood. The emesis is projecting onto your uniform. What should you do immediately after this exposure?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Blood/body fluid exposure: Stop, remove contaminated items, wash skin with soap and water, document immediately. Time matters for post-exposure prophylaxis effectiveness.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
56. A 45-year-old male is found sitting on a park bench. When you approach and ask, “Are you okay?” he slowly opens his eyes, looks at you, and says, “I think so… where am I?” He cannot tell you the day of the week. Using the AVPU scale and orientation assessment, how would you describe his mental status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Alert patients can still be confused – Alert describes how they became responsive (eyes open spontaneously), not whether their answers are correct.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
57. At 0200 hours, you respond to a residence for a “difficulty breathing” call. Upon arrival, the front door is open, lights are on, and you hear arguing inside. A male voice yells “She’s faking it!” and a female voice responds with labored breathing sounds. You see through the window a male standing over a female who is sitting on the couch. The male does not appear to have any weapons visible. Analyze the scene and determine the appropriate response.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Domestic violence doesn’t always have visible weapons. An angry partner + dismissed symptoms = call for backup before you walk in.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
58. A 55-year-old female with diabetes is found unresponsive. Her husband states she has been sick with vomiting for two days and has not been able to keep food or medications down. Blood glucose is 78 mg/dL. She has rapid, deep breathing and a fruity odor on her breath. What should you suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Euglycemic DKA exists! Vomiting + fruity breath + Kussmaul breathing = DKA even with normal glucose. Starvation can mask hyperglycemia.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
59. An unresponsive patient has blood in the oropharynx. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Blood/fluid in airway = SUCTION. Clear the airway first. Then position, adjuncts, oxygen. Blood can obstruct airway quickly.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
60. A 45-year-old male is found lying on the ground after a witnessed fall. He does not open his eyes when you approach, but when you firmly squeeze his trapezius muscle, he opens his eyes and tries to push your hand away. How would you document his AVPU status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Localization of pain (pushing away, grabbing your hand) is a purposeful motor response and indicates better neurologic function than decorticate or decerebrate posturing.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
61. A 58-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes is found confused and diaphoretic in his home. His family states he skipped breakfast and took his insulin this morning. His blood glucose reads 45 mg/dL. Which condition is most likely causing his presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Insulin without food = hypoglycemia risk. Always assess meal timing when evaluating diabetic emergencies.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
62. You are treating a 62-year-old male with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm. Vital signs are: BP 104/68 mmHg, pulse 58/min, respirations 18/min, SpO2 95% on room air. The patient hands you his nitroglycerin bottle and asks you to help him take a pill. His last dose was 45 minutes ago with no relief. What is your BEST course of action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Nitroglycerin has THREE vital sign contraindications you must check: SBP <100, HR 100 – any ONE is enough to withhold the medication.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
63. You are assessing a patient’s breathing. You count 28 breaths per minute with shallow chest rise. The patient appears anxious. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Distress vs failure: Distress = rapid, shallow, anxious, using accessory muscles. Failure = inadequate RR, cyanosis, unresponsive. Distress gets oxygen; failure gets BVM.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
64. A patient with a suspected heart attack is speaking full sentences, has pink warm skin, and denies shortness of breath. However, he reports chest pressure that began 20 minutes ago. How should this patient be prioritized?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Stable-appearing” cardiac patients can arrest in seconds—chest pain means priority transport NOW, not extended on-scene assessment.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
65. You are dispatched to a 74-year-old female with difficulty breathing. Upon arrival, you find her sitting upright in a tripod position. She reports a history of congestive heart failure and has not taken her medications in three days. Vitals: BP 182/98 mmHg, HR 102 bpm, RR 32 breaths/min, SpO2 86%. She has crackles heard in both lung bases and +2 pitting edema in both lower extremities. What is the MOST appropriate treatment sequence?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Acute pulmonary edema: sitting upright + CPAP first, then nitroglycerin if BP permits.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
66. A 68-year-old female complains of mild shortness of breath after climbing stairs. Her SpO2 is 92% on room air, and she has clear lung sounds bilaterally. She has no history of COPD. Which oxygen delivery device is MOST appropriate for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Match the oxygen device to the severity: mild hypoxia = cannula, moderate = simple mask, severe = non-rebreather, failure/arrest = BVM.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
67. A 35-year-old female complains of severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain that started 12 hours ago. She reports nausea and one episode of vomiting. She says her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She denies fever. Which additional history question is MOST important for narrowing the differential diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Female of childbearing age + abdominal pain = ALWAYS ask about pregnancy possibility. Ectopic pregnancy is a time-critical must-not-miss diagnosis.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
68. You are dispatched to a nursing home for an 84-year-old female who was found on the floor by staff. She is unable to tell you what happened. Staff report she has dementia and takes medication for hypertension and anxiety. On assessment, you note a small bruise on her forehead. Her vital signs are: BP 136/84 mmHg, HR 78/min, RR 16/min. What is your priority assessment action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Falls in the elderly are rarely “just falls” – they often signal an underlying acute medical condition (syncope, stroke, dysrhythmia, infection) that must be identified.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
69. What legal principle protects an EMT from liability for negligence when providing emergency care in good faith, within their scope of practice, and without expectation of payment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Good Samaritan = protection for good-faith emergency care. Three keys: Good faith, Within scope, No payment expected.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
70. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. A 45-year-old male is sitting on the curb. As you approach, you note he is holding his chest, appears short of breath, and his lips have a bluish tint. What is your immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Cyanosis means hypoxia – airway and breathing come before everything else.”
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
71. A 7-year-old child weighing 22 kg (48 lbs) is experiencing anaphylaxis after eating a peanut butter cookie. The parent hands you two epinephrine auto-injectors: one labeled “0.15 mg” and one labeled “0.3 mg.” Which auto-injector should you use?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pediatric auto-injector (0.15 mg) = 15-30 kg; Adult auto-injector (0.3 mg) = >30 kg. Weight determines dose.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
72. Your unit arrives at the scene of a domestic disturbance. Police are on scene and have secured one individual in the back of a patrol car. Another person is lying on the front lawn with visible injuries. Officers wave you forward, stating the scene is secure. Before approaching the patient, what is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Scene secure” from police is your cue to ASK: weapons gone? All parties accounted for? No additional threats? Verify before you approach!
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
73. A 28-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is unresponsive to verbal stimuli. When you apply a painful stimulus by squeezing his trapezius muscle, he extends his arms and legs stiffly and makes no other movement. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg, pulse is 58 beats/min, and respirations are irregular. What do these findings suggest?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations) plus decerebrate posturing = severe TBI with increased ICP – this is a critical neurosurgical emergency.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
74. You are providing a radio report to the receiving hospital. Which format is MOST appropriate for organizing your report?
CorrectIncorrectHint
SBAR: Situation (what’s happening now), Background (relevant history), Assessment (your findings), Recommendation (what you need). Keep radio reports under 60 seconds.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
75. A 35-year-old male was stung by a bee approximately 5 minutes ago. He is now experiencing difficulty breathing, widespread hives, and facial swelling. His BP is 90/60 mmHg, HR is 118 bpm, and he has audible stridor. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Anaphylaxis with respiratory distress or hypotension = epinephrine immediately. Don’t delay.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
76. Which type of medical direction involves real-time communication with a physician for orders during patient care?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Online = “on the line” (radio/phone) with a doctor; Offline = written protocols you follow independently.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
77. What is the normal respiratory rate range for a healthy adult patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“12-20 is the zone” – remember this range as the gold standard for adult respiratory assessment.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
78. You are dispatched to a construction site where a worker fell 15 feet onto concrete. He is conscious, complaining of back and abdominal pain. During your scene size-up, you note no obvious hazards. What MOI considerations should guide your assessment and resource decisions?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Fall onto concrete = harder surface = more energy transfer = more injury. Height matters, surface matters too.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
79. A 34-year-old male has a deep laceration to his forearm from a table saw. Bright red blood is spurting from the wound. Direct pressure has been applied for 3 minutes but bleeding continues heavily. What is your next action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Direct pressure first; if it fails on an extremity with severe bleeding, tourniquet time—don’t delay.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
80. You are assessing a patient’s breathing. You count 12 breaths per minute, with adequate chest rise and bilateral breath sounds. The patient is speaking in full sentences. How would you classify this breathing?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adequate breathing: Rate 12-20 (adult), good chest rise, clear breath sounds, speaks in sentences. Intervention: None for breathing itself. Check SpO2, treat underlying condition.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
81. A pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 50 with retractions, nasal flaring, and grunting. What is the transport priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pediatric respiratory distress: Retractions, nasal flaring, grunting = serious. Tripod in older kids = serious. Watch for fatigue = respiratory failure. Emergency transport.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
82. Which ethical principle requires EMTs to act in the best interest of the patient and prioritize patient welfare above personal interests?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Beneficence = doing good for the patient. Nonmaleficence = avoiding harm. Both guide ethical patient care.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
83. A 45-year-old male complains of chest pain that started 20 minutes ago. He describes it as “pressure” in the center of his chest. His vital signs are: BP 148/92, pulse 98, respiratory rate 18, SpO2 96% on room air. He has no respiratory distress and clear lung sounds. What is the MOST appropriate oxygen administration for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Suspected cardiac chest pain = supplemental oxygen via cannula, even with normal SpO2 – support the struggling heart.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
84. Which component of OPQRST assesses whether the pain spreads to other areas of the body?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Classic radiation patterns: cardiac → left arm/jaw/back; gallbladder → right shoulder; kidney → groin; hip → knee.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
85. You have just administered epinephrine to a 28-year-old woman experiencing anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings would indicate a POSITIVE response to the medication?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Look for the three Bs: Better Breathing, Better BP, less Body swelling – that’s epinephrine doing its job.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
86. You respond to a reported fire at a two-story residential home. Upon arrival, you observe moderate smoke coming from the first floor windows. The fire department has not yet arrived. A neighbor tells you three people live in the home and might still be inside. One adult is standing on the front lawn coughing, and you can hear someone calling for help from a second-floor window. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Fire means stay outside” – EMTs treat outside the hazard zone; let firefighters handle structure fires.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
87. You respond to a cardiac arrest and begin two-person BVM ventilation while your partner performs CPR. After each ventilation, you notice the patient’s abdomen rising more than the chest. Vital signs show SpO2 at 82% despite high-flow oxygen attached to the BVM. The patient has an OPA in place. Which intervention should you prioritize FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In any ventilation problem, follow the sequence: position the airway → confirm adjunct placement → check seal → then consider advanced interventions. Airway positioning is always first.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
88. A 3-year-old child is brought to you by his father. The child has multiple bruises in various stages of healing on his back, buttocks, and thighs. The father states the child “falls a lot” because he is “clumsy.” The child is quiet, avoids eye contact, and clings to his father. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bruises on back, buttocks, thighs + vague story = suspect abuse; transport, document objectively, and report to authorities—never confront.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
89. A 42-year-old male complains of chest pain. He describes the pain as sharp, worse when he breathes deeply, and improved when he sits forward. He reports he had a “bad cold” two weeks ago. He has no history of heart disease. Based on this history, which condition should the EMT consider MOST likely?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Sharp chest pain + pleuritic + positional (better sitting forward) + recent viral illness = think pericarditis.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
90. You respond to a call for a diabetic emergency at an address known to your service for drug activity. As you exit the ambulance, you observe several individuals in the driveway who appear agitated and are speaking loudly among themselves. One person shouts at you to “hurry up and get inside!” while blocking the front door. What is your most appropriate response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pressure to rush + blocking entry = red flag. Trust your instincts and stage safely.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
91. What is the FIRST priority for an EMT when arriving at the scene of an emergency?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Scene safe, BSI” – you can’t help anyone if you become a patient yourself; assess safety first, every time.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
92. A 19-year-old male is found unconscious at a party. Friends report he “had a lot to drink.” The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, has vomit in his mouth, and is breathing at 6 breaths per minute with gurgling sounds. After you suction the airway, what finding would indicate that your airway intervention has been SUCCESSFUL?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Successful suctioning = no more gurgling + clear breath sounds. The sound tells you everything: gurgling gone = airway clear.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
93. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-resuer CPR on an adult patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“30:2 for adults, 30:2 for single-rescuer kids, 15:2 for two-rescuer infants and kids.”
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
94. A 62-year-old male with a history of COPD and congestive heart failure presents with severe shortness of breath. Assessment reveals: BP 168/94 mmHg, HR 112, RR 28, SpO2 86% on room air. He has diffuse wheezing, bilateral crackles, 2+ pitting edema in both lower extremities, and JVD. After administering bronchodilator therapy, minimal improvement is noted. Which condition is the PRIMARY cause of his respiratory distress, and what is the MOST appropriate next intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When COPD meets CHF and wheezing doesn’t respond to albuterol, think “wet lungs” first—CPAP and upright positioning are your friends.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
95. You are called to a residence for a 4-year-old child who is choking. Upon arrival, you find the child alert but anxious, sitting upright, and making high-pitched noises when inhaling. His skin is pink. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Mild airway obstruction = cough and monitor; Severe obstruction (unable to speak/cough, cyanosis) = intervene immediately.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
96. A rural county is developing a new EMS system. Community leaders want to understand the difference between a fire-based EMS system and a third-service model. Which statement best describes a key distinction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Fire-based = EMS + fire together; Third-service = EMS standalone; Private = company-owned; Hospital-based = hospital-operated.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
97. What is the minimum fall height that should be considered a significant mechanism of injury requiring a full trauma assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Think “20 feet or 2-3x height” for significant fall MOI – anything less needs clinical judgment, not automatic trauma activation.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
98. You are dispatched to a residence for a “difficulty breathing” call. As you approach the address, you notice an unusual number of emergency vehicles – two police cars are parked with lights off, officers are positioned behind their vehicles with weapons drawn, and a SWAT vehicle is staging nearby. A police officer waves you forward. What is your BEST response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Weapons drawn + SWAT = tactical scene – verify with command, don’t assume.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
99. You arrive on scene to find a 55-year-old male lying supine on the kitchen floor. His wife states he collapsed while eating dinner about 5 minutes ago. The patient is unresponsive, cyanotic around the lips, and not making any respiratory effort. You observe abdominal distension and hear no breath sounds. His pulse is rapid and weak. You attempt to ventilate with a BVM, but you cannot get the chest to rise despite proper mask seal and positioning. What is the most likely cause, and what is the appropriate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Café coronary” – collapse during a meal with inability to ventilate means obstruction until proven otherwise. Open the airway and clear the obstruction.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
100. An EMT arrives at the bedside of a 72-year-old female with pneumonia. The patient is lying supine, appears cyanotic around the lips, and is using accessory muscles to breathe. She is diaphoretic and unable to speak. What general impression should be formed?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cyanosis + accessory muscles + unable to speak = respiratory failure. This patient is “sick” and needs immediate intervention.
Prepare for your NREMT certification with our comprehensive EMT Full Practice Test 9. This 100-question exam covers all five NREMT domains, designed to simulate the real exam experience and help you identify areas for improvement.
The test includes:
– Scene Size-Up (~17 questions) – Assessing the scene and ensuring safety
– Primary Assessment (~42 questions) – Focused on life-threatening conditions
– Secondary Assessment (~7 questions) – Detailed patient history and physical exam
– Patient Treatment (~22 questions) – Interventions and protocols
– Operations (~12 questions) – EMS operations and documentation
Tips for Success:
1. Time Management – Allocate ~1 minute per question to build exam pacing.
2. Review Weak Areas – Use results to focus on challenging domains.
📚 More Full Practice Tests Practice: