The quiz includes:
– Scene Size-Up (~17 questions) – Assessing hazards and patient priorities
– Primary Assessment (~42 questions) – Focused history, vital signs, and life threats
– Secondary Assessment (~7 questions) – Detailed history and physical exam
– Patient Treatment (~22 questions) – Interventions and medications
– Operations (~12 questions) – EMS operations and safety
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Categories
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Communications 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Documentation 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Documentation & Communication 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > EMS Systems 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Ethics 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Incident Command 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Vehicle Operations 0%
- Operations > Documentation & Communication 0%
- Operations > PCR (Patient Care Report) 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Airway Management 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > BVM Ventilation 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Environmental Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Pharmacology 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Respiratory Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Bleeding Control 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Diabetic Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatrics – Abdominal Pain 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatrics – Medication Compliance 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Oxygen Therapy 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Oxygen Therapy – Delivery Devices 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Oxygen Therapy – Special Populations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pediatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pharmacology – Bronchodilators 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory Distress 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory Emergencies – Pneumonia 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Special Populations – Patients with Disabilities 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Trauma – Abdominal Injury 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Breathing Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation, Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Initial Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness (LOC) 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > LOC & Airway Integration 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Mental Status 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Resuscitation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Scene Size-Up 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Transport Decision 0%
- Primary Assessment > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Resource Utilization 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Standard Precautions 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > SAMPLE History 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Physical Exam 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Physical Examination 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Vital Signs 0%
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1. In the Incident Command System, which section is responsible for providing resources, facilities, and services to support incident objectives?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Logistics = “Getting stuff.” Operations = “Doing stuff.” Planning = “Thinking ahead.” Finance = “Paying for stuff.”
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2. What is the process called when command is transferred from one Incident Commander to another?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Transfer of command: Brief incoming IC on situation, resources, actions taken, plan. Document the transfer. Higher qualified IC may assume command at any time.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
3. What is the normal fasting blood glucose level range for an adult patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Remember “70-110 is heaven” – normal fasting glucose range for quick recall during assessments.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
4. You arrive at a motor vehicle collision with three patients. Patient A is a 28-year-old female walking around the scene with a minor forehead laceration, complaining of a headache. Patient B is a 45-year-old male sitting on the ground, holding his chest, breathing rapidly with visible bruising on his steering wheel. Patient C is a 22-year-old male lying motionless on the ground with a large scalp laceration. Based on your general impression, which patient should be assessed first?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In triage, silence is the loudest warning sign. An unresponsive patient is always assessed first—their airway and breathing status is unknown.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
5. You arrive at a restaurant where a patron collapsed. Bystanders report the 55-year-old male was eating when he suddenly grabbed his throat, turned blue, and became unresponsive. During your primary assessment, you find him supine on the floor, unresponsive, with cyanosis around his lips. He is not breathing. You attempt to ventilate with a BVM, but the chest does not rise. You reposition the head and try again—still no chest rise. What is your immediate priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive with suspected FBAO + can’t ventilate = start CPR. Chest compressions may dislodge the object. Check mouth between compressions.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
6. A 19-year-old male was found unresponsive at a party. When you pinch his trapezius muscle, he pulls his arm away and mumbles something unintelligible. His pupils are equal and reactive to light. What is his AVPU status, and what does his response to pain indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Purposeful response to pain (pulling away, localizing) = better prognosis than posturing. Document as “P” on AVPU with description of the response.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
7. During a head-to-toe trauma assessment, the EMT assesses the neck for several potential findings. Which of the following is NOT typically assessed during the neck examination?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When assessing the neck in trauma, think “TJ-C” – Tracheal position, Jugular veins, and Cervical spine.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
8. An 82-year-old female presents with vague abdominal discomfort that she describes as “not really pain, just not right.” She has had decreased appetite for three days and occasional nausea. Her abdomen is soft but mildly tender in the right lower quadrant. Vital signs are: BP 118/72 mmHg, HR 88/min, RR 18/min, Temp 99.2°F. What is your primary concern?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric abdominal emergencies, “pain does not equal pathology, and lack of pain does not rule it out” – elderly patients often have serious conditions with minimal symptoms.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
9. A 72-year-old female fell at home and has a hip fracture. She is alert but her blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg and heart rate is 88 bpm. Her skin is warm and dry. Why might this patient still be considered a priority despite normal vital signs?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“In the elderly, normal vitals don’t rule out shock – they might just be on medications.”
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
10. A 72-year-old nursing home resident has a productive cough with green sputum, fever, and increased work of breathing. Her SpO2 is 89% on room air. Auscultation reveals crackles in the right lower lung field. What is the MOST appropriate oxygen therapy for transport?
CorrectIncorrectHint
For moderate hypoxia, start with nasal cannula and titrate to SpO2 ≥94%.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
11. After treating a patient, you discover that your gloves have a small tear. You had contact with the patient’s blood. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Glove tear with blood = Exposure. Wash immediately, report to supervisor, follow exposure protocol. Time matters for post-exposure prophylaxis.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
12. A 35-year-old male was working in a hot environment and is now confused, has hot and dry skin, and a rapid pulse. What condition does this suggest and what is the appropriate treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Heat stroke = Hot/dry skin + Altered mental status. This is life-threatening! Rapid cooling + emergent transport. Heat exhaustion = sweating + intact mental status.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
13. You arrive on scene of a motor vehicle collision on a rural highway. There are three vehicles involved with a total of seven patients complaining of various injuries. Two patients are ambulatory, four are still in vehicles, and one is unresponsive on the ground. What is your FIRST resource consideration?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Multiple patients = think MCI first. Request resources before you’re overwhelmed.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
14. You are returning from a non-emergency call when your ambulance is struck by another vehicle that ran a red light. Your partner is injured. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Ambulance collision priority: Scene safety → Assess injured → Care → Notify dispatch → Document. Don’t pursue other drivers. Take care of your crew first.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
15. You are called to a scene where a 35-year-old male with type 1 diabetes was found acting “drunk” by police. The officers smell alcohol on his breath and want to arrest him for public intoxication. His blood glucose is 42 mg/dL. He is confused and unable to follow commands. Which statement BEST describes the appropriate medical-legal approach?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoglycemia can mimic intoxication. Always check glucose in “drunk” diabetics. Treat the glucose first, sort out the alcohol later.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
16. Which statement about tourniquet use in the prehospital setting is correct?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Document the time, leave it on, tell the trauma team. Never loosen a field tourniquet.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
17. You are treating a 3-year-old child with respiratory distress. The child is alert, crying, and has audible stridor. The mother reports the symptoms began suddenly while the child was eating. Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pediatric airway obstruction + crying = good sign (air is moving). Keep them calm, use blow-by oxygen, and do not agitate. Let them sit with mom.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
18. What is the FIRST action an EMT should take when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle collision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Scene safety first, always. You can’t help anyone if you become a patient yourself.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
19. A 62-year-old male with a history of COPD presents with severe wheezing and dyspnea. He has his prescribed albuterol inhaler with him. His blood pressure is 146/92 mmHg, pulse is 104/min, and SpO2 is 88% on room air. After initiating oxygen therapy, what is the most appropriate action regarding his medication?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Always “call before you assist” – medical direction authorization is required before helping patients take prescribed medications.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
20. You respond to a motor vehicle collision on a rural highway. A 32-year-old male was the unrestrained driver in a high-speed head-on collision. Upon arrival, you find him still in the driver’s seat, unconscious. During your rapid primary assessment, you note the following: his airway is open, he has shallow respirations at 12 breaths per minute, his radial pulse is absent but you palpate a weak femoral pulse at 130 beats per minute. His skin is pale, cool, and clammy. You notice significant deformity to his steering wheel and dashboard. What do these primary assessment findings indicate, and what is your immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Absent radial pulse + present femoral pulse = systolic BP approximately 60-80 mmHg. This is decompensated shock requiring immediate transport.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
21. A patient has a blood pressure of 140/90 with no symptoms. What does this indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
HTN Stage 2 = ≥140/90. Hypertensive emergency = high BP + symptoms (chest pain, severe headache, vision changes, AMS). Asymptomatic = follow up, not emergency.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
22. An EMT is completing a PCR for a patient who refused transport after being assessed for a minor head laceration. The patient was alert and oriented, had normal vital signs, and signed a refusal form. The EMT documents: “Patient seen for head lac. Refused transport. AMA form signed.” Which statement BEST describes the adequacy of this documentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Refusal documentation must prove the patient had capacity, understood risks, and made an informed decision.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
23. An EMT arrives at the emergency department with a 68-year-old female patient who fell at home. The EMT needs to give a verbal report to the receiving nurse. Using the MIST format, which information should the EMT provide FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
MIST is a rapid transfer tool – Mechanism, Injuries, Signs/symptoms, Treatment. Memorize the order!
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
24. You respond to a reported overdose at a public library. Upon arrival, the librarian meets you at the door and states that a man in his 30s is “passed out” in the computer area. As you approach with your equipment, you observe the patient slumped in a chair with a needle and syringe visible in his lap. There is an open backpack on the floor next to him with what appears to be drug paraphernalia and small plastic bags. Two library patrons are standing nearby, appearing concerned. The patient is breathing but unresponsive to voice. What is your most appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Overdose scene with needles visible = assume more needles are present. Scan before you approach.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
25. You arrive at a motor vehicle collision involving a minivan and a truck. There are four patients. A 6-year-old child in the minivan is crying loudly and has a visible laceration to the forehead. The 35-year-old mother is ambulatory but holding her abdomen and states she is “fine.” The 70-year-old grandfather is unresponsive with a large hematoma to the forehead and unequal pupils. The truck driver is walking around the scene complaining of back pain. Based on your primary assessment and triage principles, how should you prioritize these patients?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Triage priority: Unconscious/altered mental status > signs of shock > severe bleeding > fractures > ambulatory patients. Unequal pupils in an unresponsive patient = critical TBI.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
26. You are assessing a 45-year-old driver involved in a high-speed head-on collision. The steering column is bent, the windshield is starred, and the patient was not wearing a seatbelt. Based on this MOI, which transport decision is most appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bent steering column + starred windshield + no seatbelt = trauma center, no questions asked.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
27. You respond to a 22-year-old male found unresponsive at a college party. Bystanders state he was drinking heavily and possibly using “something he smoked.” Assessment reveals: unresponsive to verbal stimuli, withdraws from painful stimuli (localizes to sternal rub), respirations 10 breaths/min and shallow, pupils 2mm and reactive, skin pale and cool. Blood glucose is 95 mg/dL. Cardiac monitor shows sinus bradycardia at 52 bpm. Which interpretation BEST explains the pathophysiology connecting these findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pinpoint pupils + respiratory depression + altered mental status = opioid toxicity. At a party with polysubstance use, think synergistic toxicity. Naloxone can reverse the opioid component and may save a life.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
28. A paramedic asks you to confirm the aspirin dose before he administers it to a 67-year-old patient with crushing chest pain. The patient has no allergies and is not on blood thinners. What dose should you confirm for this suspected acute coronary syndrome patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Chew it” – always chew aspirin for cardiac chest pain. Two baby aspirins (162 mg) or one adult aspirin (325 mg) is the rule.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
29. A 19-year-old female was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She was wearing a lap-only seatbelt. She has ecchymosis across her lower abdomen and is complaining of severe abdominal pain. Her vital signs are: BP 102/70 mmHg, HR 108/min, RR 22/min. Which injury pattern should you MOST suspect based on the mechanism and findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Lap belt sign + abdominal pain = think small bowel and mesenteric injuries. These may present subtly but can be life-threatening if missed.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
30. You respond to a 56-year-old male who fell from a ladder. He is unresponsive to all stimuli (AVPU: U). His GCS is 4 (E1, V1, M2). Breathing is irregular and noisy. You note clear fluid draining from his left ear. What is the MOST appropriate sequence of interventions for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Clear or bloody fluid from the ear or nose after trauma = possible basilar skull fracture = contraindication for NPA insertion.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
31. You respond to a single-vehicle collision. The car struck a utility pole at moderate speed. The driver is complaining of abdominal pain. You notice the steering wheel is bent. What does this finding indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A bent steering wheel = bent patient – assume significant internal injury until proven otherwise.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
32. A 34-year-old female complains of dizziness and nausea. During your primary assessment, you note she is alert but pale. Her radial pulse is weak and thready at 112 beats per minute. Her skin is cool and moist. What do these findings suggest about her circulatory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tachycardia + weak pulse + pale/cool/moist skin = shock until proven otherwise. Don’t wait for hypotension to recognize early shock.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
33. You are called to a nursing home for a 78-year-old female with an altered level of consciousness. The nursing staff reports she has a feeding tube, a urinary catheter, and has been experiencing episodes of vomiting. She currently has bloody drainage from her catheter site. As you prepare to assess and transport, what PPE is most appropriate for this encounter?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Blood plus vomit equals gown and goggles” – protect against splash when body fluids are flowing.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
34. A 72-year-old female fell down a flight of stairs. During your primary assessment, you note she is confused and only responds to verbal stimuli with inappropriate words. Her left pupil is 6mm and non-reactive; her right pupil is 3mm and reactive. She has a large contusion on the left side of her head. Blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg, heart rate is 52 bpm, and respiratory rate is 14 with irregular pattern. What is your interpretation of these findings, and what is your priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cushing’s triad (hypertension + bradycardia + irregular respirations) + fixed dilated pupil = imminent herniation—transport now.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
35. You respond to a two-vehicle collision. There are three patients. Patient A is walking around with a bleeding hand laceration. Patient B is sitting on the curb, holding his chest, and has labored breathing. Patient C is unconscious and slumped over the steering wheel with visible facial trauma. Using the START triage system, which patient should receive your IMMEDIATE attention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In MCI triage: assess respirations first, then perfusion, then mental status. Unconscious = immediate/red tag until proven otherwise.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
36. A 55-year-old female is being assessed for a syncopal episode. Her capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Which statement best explains the significance of this finding?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Capillary refill >2 seconds = poor perfusion, but always correlate with other findings (skin color, temperature, moisture, pulse quality).
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
37. You are assessing a 6-month-old infant who is crying vigorously. You note her skin is pink, warm, and dry. You palpate the brachial pulse and count 140 beats per minute. The infant’s capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. How would you interpret these findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Normal infant vitals: HR 100-160, RR 30-60, skin pink/warm/dry, cap refill < 2 seconds.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
38. A 65-year-old male with a known history of stroke was found on the floor by his wife approximately 2 hours after she last saw him normal. On assessment, he does not open his eyes to voice. When you apply a sternal rub, he extends both arms and legs rigidly with internal rotation of the wrists. His respirations are 8 per minute and irregular. Based on the LOC findings and posturing, what is the MOST likely level of brain dysfunction, and what does this indicate about his prognosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Decerebrate posturing + irregular respirations = brain herniation until proven otherwise. This is a neurosurgical emergency requiring immediate airway management and rapid transport.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
39. During a head-to-toe physical exam of an unconscious patient, the EMT notices clear fluid draining from the patient’s left ear following a motor vehicle crash. There is also bruising behind the left ear. What should the EMT do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Clear fluid from ear + Battle’s sign = basal skull fracture until proven otherwise. NEVER pack or block ear drainage – meningitis risk. Cover loosely, allow to drain.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
40. A patient was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision. Why does this mechanism warrant a higher index of suspicion for serious injury compared to a frontal impact at the same speed?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Rollover = roll over every body system with your assessment – nothing is off limits.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
41. A 62-year-old female complains of chest pain. Her skin is warm and dry, and she has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds. Her radial pulse is strong and regular at 78 beats per minute. What do these findings indicate about her circulatory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Warm, dry, pink, and fast refill” – four quick checks that tell you perfusion is good.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
42. You are preparing to assess a patient with active tuberculosis who is coughing. Which combination of PPE is most appropriate for this encounter?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Think “AIRBORNE = N95” – TB, measles, varicella, and COVID-19 all require N95 respirators, not surgical masks.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
43. A patient is confused and cannot follow commands but responds to pain by localizing the stimulus. What is the motor component of GCS?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS Motor: 6=obeys commands, 5=localizes pain (purposeful), 4=withdraws, 3=flexion, 2=extension, 1=none. Localization = purposeful movement to stimulus.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
44. A 28-year-old female presents with intense itching between her fingers, on her wrists, and around her waist. Her skin shows small, raised, red tracks. She mentions several family members have similar symptoms. What level of PPE is most appropriate for this encounter?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Scabies = contact precautions = gown + gloves; no mask needed because it spreads by touch, not by air or droplets.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
45. You are assessing a 68-year-old male with difficulty breathing. He is able to speak in full sentences but appears anxious. His respirations are 22 per minute with adequate chest rise. His skin is warm and dry, and his oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Speaking in full sentences = adequate airway and breathing. Reserve aggressive interventions for patients who cannot protect their airway.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
46. You arrive on scene of a motor vehicle collision with downed power lines across the vehicle. A patient is trapped inside, conscious and waving for help. What is your immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Downed power lines = stay in your truck or stay 35+ feet away – the ground can kill you.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
47. You are treating a 32-year-old construction worker with a deep laceration to his right thigh. Bright red blood is spurting from the wound. During your circulation assessment, you note a strong radial pulse of 100, warm pink skin, and the patient is alert. What is your IMMEDIATE priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bright red spurting blood = arterial bleeding. Control it NOW with direct pressure. Don’t wait to assess further.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
48. During a secondary assessment physical exam, which technique should the EMT use to assess for crepitus in a suspected fracture?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Crepitus = grinding sensation from bone fragments. Assess with gentle, light fingertip palpation. Never ask patient to move a suspected fracture.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
49. You respond to a residence for a 34-year-old female with severe headache. Upon arrival, she describes the headache as “the worst of my life” and says it began suddenly 30 minutes ago while she was watching television. She is alert but appears anxious and has photophobia. Her blood pressure is 168/94 mmHg, pulse is 88, respirations 18. She has no significant medical history. During your assessment, you note her right eyelid is drooping and her right pupil is dilated. Based on these findings, what is your assessment and transport priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Worst headache of my life” with sudden onset = subarachnoid hemorrhage until proven otherwise. Ptosis with dilated pupil suggests aneurysm – this is a neurosurgical emergency.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
50. Why is it important to document a patient’s last oral intake when obtaining a SAMPLE history?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A full stomach means aspiration risk – document what, when, and how much the patient last consumed.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
51. A pedestrian was struck by a vehicle traveling approximately 40 mph. The patient was thrown approximately 30 feet and is currently unconscious. Which mechanism factors most strongly indicate the need for spinal immobilization and comprehensive trauma assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pedestrian struck + thrown + unconscious = high-energy trauma with potential spinal injury. Immobilize and assess everything.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
52. A 61-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with confusion, dry mucous membranes, and blood glucose of 680 mg/dL. His family reports he has been urinating frequently and drinking large amounts of water over the past week. Which condition should you suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
HHS = High glucose (often >600) + HHNK (Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketotic) + Type 2 diabetes + Gradual onset.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
53. You are documenting a patient encounter. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way to document the patient’s description of pain?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Document objectively: patient statements in quotes, vital signs, physical findings, interventions, and patient response. Avoid subjective judgments or assumptions.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
54. A 4-year-old child is brought to you by his mother after falling from a swing. The child is crying loudly, holding his left arm, and reaching for his mother. What does this general impression indicate about the child’s status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“A crying child has an open airway, is breathing, and is perfusing their brain – that’s a good sign.”
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
55. A patient is described as “alert and oriented times three.” What does this specifically indicate about the patient’s mental status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Document orientation as “A+O×3” (or ×2, ×1, ×0) – this is standard EMS and medical terminology for mental status.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
56. A 22-year-old patient with asthma is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which finding is MOST characteristic of asthma during expiration?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In asthma, wheeze on the way OUT; in upper airway obstruction, stridor on the way IN.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
57. You respond to a motor vehicle collision on a busy highway. Upon arrival, you notice fluid leaking from one of the vehicles and a strong odor of gasoline. What should be your FIRST priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Your safety first, then your partner’s, then the patient’s – you can’t help anyone if you become a casualty.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
58. You are assessing a 67-year-old female with sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is sitting upright in bed, leaning forward with her hands on her knees. Her skin is cool and diaphoretic. What does this patient’s position MOST likely indicate about her respiratory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The tripod position is a “sick” sign – patients instinctively assume this posture to maximize lung expansion and accessory muscle use during respiratory distress.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
59. What is the normal respiratory rate range for a 3-year-old child?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Toddlers breathe fast—20-30 times a minute; if they’re breathing like an adult (12-20), they’re in trouble.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
60. A 72-year-old female with a history of stroke presents with gurgling respirations and is unable to swallow her secretions. She opens her eyes when you call her name but does not follow commands. What is the MOST appropriate airway management sequence?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Verbal-responsive patients often retain their gag reflex – use NPA instead of OPA to avoid triggering vomiting.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
61. You are triaging at the scene of a house explosion with multiple casualties. You assess four patients simultaneously. Patient A is walking around asking for help with a bleeding arm. Patient B is lying motionless, breathing rapidly at 35 breaths/min. Patient C is sitting against a wall, breathing normally, with an obvious leg deformity but following commands. Patient D is unresponsive with no breathing despite opening the airway. Which patient should be treated FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“In MCI triage, walking = Green, RR>30 = Red, not breathing after airway = Black.”
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
62. A patient requires supplemental oxygen at a precise concentration of 40%. Which oxygen delivery device would be most appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Need a specific oxygen percentage? Venturi mask is the only device that delivers precise, consistent concentrations.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
63. What is the FIRST priority upon arrival at any emergency scene?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Scene safe?” is your first question at every call – dead EMTs help no one.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
64. You are called to assess a 5-year-old child who fell from a second-story window. On arrival, the child appears pale and is sitting quietly, not crying. The parent says, “He was screaming earlier but now he’s acting fine.” The child’s capillary refill is 4 seconds, skin is cool and clammy, and his heart rate is 160. How would you interpret these findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In pediatric trauma, a quiet child is a scared child – always investigate why a child stops crying, as it often signals serious injury or shock.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
65. A patient opens his eyes only when you apply a painful stimulus, makes incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws from the pain. What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS ≤ 8 = intubation consideration—these patients cannot protect their own airway.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
66. A 22-year-old female was an unrestrained passenger in a high-speed rollover motor vehicle crash. She was partially ejected and has multiple abrasions and a deformed left thigh. She is answering questions appropriately but complains of abdominal pain. Which finding from the MOI would necessitate trauma center transport rather than the local emergency department?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Ejection = trauma center automatically – no debate, no detour.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
67. You are treating a 34-year-old male who was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He has an open femur fracture with significant bleeding, is pale and diaphoretic, and has a SpO2 of 94% on room air. His respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute. What is the MOST appropriate oxygen intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In trauma, treat the patient, not the number: signs of shock = high-flow oxygen, even with “normal” SpO2.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
68. An EMT arrives at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. The patient is unconscious and lying supine on the ground. The EMT observes gurgling sounds during the patient’s breathing. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Gurgling means fluids” – hearing gurgling should trigger immediate suctioning before any other intervention.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
69. You respond to a nursing home for an 82-year-old female with “altered mental status.” Staff report she was “completely normal yesterday” but this morning was found unresponsive in bed. Your primary assessment reveals: she does not open her eyes to voice, but withdraws from painful stimuli; her breathing is rapid at 24 breaths per minute with adequate tidal volume; her skin is warm and dry; her radial pulse is 88 and regular. Her blood glucose is 245 mg/dL. Based on your general impression and primary assessment, what is the MOST likely explanation for her altered mental status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Elderly diabetic with AMS + elevated glucose + no signs of shock = consider HHS. Glucose may not be as high as typical DKA, but dehydration causes the AMS.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
70. During the primary assessment of an unresponsive adult, you find no radial pulse but a weak carotid pulse. The patient’s skin is cool, pale, and dry. What is your estimated systolic blood pressure and what does this finding indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
No radial but carotid present = SBP 60-79 mmHg = decompensated shock. Act fast!
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
71. You are assessing a 58-year-old male with severe respiratory distress. He is able to speak only two to three words at a time before gasping for breath. He has audible stridor on inspiration. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. What condition should you suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Stridor = upper airway obstruction = impending airway emergency. This sound should trigger immediate concern for airway compromise.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
72. You are treating a 34-year-old patient with significant facial trauma from an assault. There is blood around the mouth and nose, and the patient is spitting blood while combative and screaming. Police are on scene and have secured the patient. The hospital reports this patient is known to have hepatitis C. Which PPE combination is MOST appropriate for this scenario?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Combative spitting plus bloodborne disease? Glove up, gown up, and shield your face – protect every portal.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
73. You are assessing a 22-year-old female patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. Her vital signs are: BP 108/70 mmHg, HR 98 bpm, RR 18 breaths/min, SpO2 99%. Which vital sign finding is consistent with normal pregnancy-related changes and does NOT indicate pathology?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pregnant patients normally have slightly lower blood pressure and higher heart rates – don’t over-treat normal pregnancy physiology.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
74. A patient has absent breath sounds bilaterally. What could this indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Absent breath sounds = air not moving. Check: Is the patient breathing? Is there chest trauma? Are you listening correctly? Immediate intervention needed.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
75. A patient with a suspected stroke needs transport. What time is critical to document?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Stroke = document “last known well” time. Determines tPA eligibility (within 4.5 hours). Time is brain. Every minute counts. Ask witnesses, check phone records.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
76. A 58-year-old male with a history of COPD is experiencing a respiratory emergency. He is using accessory muscles and has an SpO2 of 89%. You have his prescribed albuterol inhaler. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
COPD exacerbation: Bronchodilator (albuterol) + oxygen + upright position. Monitor for improvement or deterioration. Hypoxia is the immediate threat.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
77. You are transporting a patient who was involved in a domestic violence incident. During transport, the patient asks you not to tell police certain details about how the assault occurred because she fears retaliation. You know that police are waiting at the hospital to take a statement. Which action best balances your ethical obligations?
CorrectIncorrectHint
You can’t lie for patients, but you can advocate. Be honest about your obligations while minimizing unnecessary disclosure.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
78. When providing a patient report via radio to the receiving hospital, which information should be communicated FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Radio report structure: 1) Unit ID, 2) Nature of call, 3) Patient info (SBAR format), 4) ETA. Keep it concise – under 60 seconds if possible.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
79. You respond to a 45-year-old male who collapsed while jogging. He is unresponsive, not breathing normally, and you cannot feel a carotid pulse. What is your immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In cardiac arrest, “push hard and push fast” – start chest compressions immediately; they’re more important than airway management in the first minutes.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
80. A patient has absent breath sounds on the left side and decreased chest movement after a stabbing. What should you suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Penetrating trauma + absent breath sounds on one side = pneumothorax. Watch for tension: tracheal deviation, JVD, hypotension. Emergency transport.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
81. You respond to a factory where a 40-year-old worker has a partial amputation of three fingers on his right hand from a machine. There is significant bleeding but it is controlled with direct pressure. The amputated fingers are available. How should you transport the amputated parts?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Moist, bagged, on ice” – never directly on ice, never in water. Amputated parts need protection, not drowning or freezing.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
82. What is the appropriate ventilation rate during CPR with an advanced airway in place?
CorrectIncorrectHint
CPR with advanced airway: Continuous compressions + 10-12 breaths/min. One breath every 5-6 seconds. Don’t pause compressions for breaths.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
83. A 19-year-old male was found unconscious at a party. Friends state he was drinking alcohol and may have taken “something else.” His respirations are 6 per minute with shallow chest rise, his pulse is 58 and weak, and his skin is pale, cool, and cyanotic around the lips. His pupils are 2mm and reactive. You open his airway with a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver, but his breathing does not improve. What is your immediate priority, and why?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In respiratory failure with inadequate breathing, BVM ventilation comes first—never wait for medications to work while the patient is hypoxic.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
84. A 67-year-old female is coughing productively and has been diagnosed with influenza at an urgent care center. She is being transported for hospital admission. The urgent care staff placed her in a surgical mask. What PPE should the transporting EMTs wear?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Flu means droplet precautions – surgical mask for you, gloves too, and keep that patient masked.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
85. A 56-year-old male was found down in his bathroom. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. You note his skin is cyanotic, cold, and mottled. His pulse is 40 bpm and very weak. His blood pressure is 72/48 mmHg. He has slow, agonal respirations at 6 per minute. Your partner is preparing to assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. Based on these primary assessment findings, what is your interpretation of this patient’s condition and immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bradycardia with hypotension and cyanosis = the heart is giving out—prepare for arrest, but treat what you can see now.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
86. When sizing an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) for an adult patient, what is the correct measurement technique?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Corner of mouth to ear lobe” = OPA; “Tip of nose to ear lobe” = NPA.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
87. A 69-year-old male with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and heart failure was discharged from the hospital three days ago with new medications. His wife called 911 because he is confused and weak today. She reports he has been taking “all his pills, including the new ones.” His blood glucose is 285 mg/dL, BP 88/52 mmHg, HR 110/min, RR 22/min. He is oriented only to person. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
After hospital discharge, elderly patients are at high risk for medication errors – “taking all the pills” might mean taking duplicate prescriptions or old medications with new ones.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
88. You are assessing a 34-year-old female who was found by her roommate after an unknown period of time. She does not open her eyes when you call her name, but when you tap her shoulder, her eyes open and she says “What’s happening?” She cannot tell you where she is or what day it is. How should you document her AVPU and orientation status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
AVPU and orientation are separate assessments. A patient can be Alert but disoriented. Document both clearly: “Alert, A+O×1” tells the full story.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
89. A medium-sized city operates a hospital-based EMS system. The local fire department also responds to medical emergencies with first-responder capabilities. The hospital administration is concerned about duplicated services and response time delays due to miscommunication between units. Analysis reveals that firefighters arrive first on 60% of calls but often lack proper equipment, and EMS ambulances from the hospital average 14-minute response times due to distance from certain areas. Which system-wide improvement would MOST effectively address these issues?
CorrectIncorrectHint
EMS system problems are often coordination and positioning issues, not organizational model issues. Work smarter, not harder.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
90. You are first on scene at a motor vehicle collision. The driver is unconscious with an obvious deformed thigh and absent pulses in the leg. A passenger is ambulatory with a bleeding forehead laceration. A third person is trapped in the back seat with unknown injuries. What is your FIRST priority for resource requests?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Multiple patients + entrapment + vascular compromise = call early and call everyone: Fire for extrication, ALS for critical care, and consider MCI protocols!
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
91. What is the correct adult dose of aspirin for a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ACS = Aspirin 162-325 mg CHEWED for rapid absorption. It irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation within minutes.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
92. During a patient care transfer at the hospital, you realize you documented the wrong medication dosage in your PCR. The patient actually received 0.4 mg nitroglycerin, but you wrote 4.0 mg. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Errors happen; cover-ups don’t. One line, initials, date, correct entry – transparency protects everyone.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
93. A patient appears acutely ill with grunting respirations. What does grunting typically indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Grunting = serious respiratory distress. Body trying to keep alveoli open. Common in pneumonia, respiratory infections. Pediatric warning sign. Act fast.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
94. You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision involving three patients. Patient A is walking around the scene with a bleeding forehead laceration. Patient B is sitting on the curb holding his arm and states he has pain. Patient C is still in the vehicle, unresponsive, with labored breathing. Which patient should be your FIRST priority for assessment and treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In multiple-patient scenarios, prioritize unresponsive patients first, followed by those with ABC compromise, then walking wounded.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
95. You are called to a group home for a 42-year-old male with cerebral palsy who has a suspected respiratory infection. He uses a wheelchair and has limited verbal communication. Staff report he has had a fever and decreased appetite for two days. Today he is breathing faster than usual. What is the most appropriate approach to assess this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Listen to the staff, but trust your assessment” – caregivers know the patient’s baseline, but your physical exam and vital signs determine current medical status.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
96. A 55-year-old male fell from a ladder approximately 12 feet. He is alert and oriented but complains of lower back pain. During your head-to-toe trauma assessment, you note the following: contusion to the left temporal region, tenderness to palpation of the cervical spine, equal breath sounds bilaterally, rigid abdomen with left upper quadrant tenderness, and point tenderness over the lumbar spine. Based on these assessment findings, which of the following represents the MOST appropriate sequence for your secondary assessment priorities?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In trauma, think “C-spine first and always” – stabilization begins at initial contact and continues throughout the assessment and transport.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
97. You arrive at a single-vehicle collision. The driver is slumped over the steering wheel. What is the FIRST thing you should determine?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Scene safety first, always. Traffic, fire, wires, violence, hazards – check before you approach. Your safety is priority #1.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
98. You are called to a nursing home for an 82-year-old male who fell 4 hours ago. Staff report he “seems fine” and has been resting in bed. His vital signs are BP 134/82, pulse 76, respirations 16. He denies pain. However, you note he is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Despite normal vital signs and no complaints, why should this patient be considered high priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Anticoagulation + any head trauma = high risk for delayed intracranial bleeding. These patients need evaluation regardless of how well they look initially.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
99. A 54-year-old male with a massive stroke has ineffective respiratory effort with agonal breathing. You decide to provide positive pressure ventilation with a BVM. Which combination of technique elements is MOST important for effective ventilation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Two-person BVM is always preferred when available. One seals, one squeezes. Slow squeeze (1-2 sec), watch for chest rise, maintain that seal.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
100. What is the normal resting respiratory rate range for a healthy adult?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Twelve to twenty keeps you plenty” – a simple way to remember the normal adult respiratory rate range.
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