The questions are distributed across the following domains: Scene Size-Up (~17 questions), Primary Assessment (~42 questions), Secondary Assessment (~7 questions), Patient Treatment (~22 questions), and Operations (~12 questions). This balanced coverage ensures you get a thorough review of every critical area tested on the NREMT.
When taking this practice test, focus on time management to build exam stamina, and use your results to identify and review weak areas. Consistent practice is key to building confidence and improving your performance.
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Categories
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Consent 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > EMS Systems 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Hazardous Materials 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Incident Command 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Medical Direction 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Medical/Legal Issues 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Quality Improvement 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Vehicle Operations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Cardiac Arrest 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Respiratory Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Airway Management 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Airway Management – Nasopharyngeal Airway 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Airway Management – Suctioning 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Cardiac 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Diabetic Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Epinephrine 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Medical Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Medical Emergencies – Seizure 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pediatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory Distress 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Special Populations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Spinal – Assessment 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Trauma – Shock 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Breathing Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation, Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Initial Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness (LOC) 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Mental Status 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Transport Decision 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of NREMT EMT exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > MOI/NOI (Mechanism of Injury) 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Resource Utilization 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Documentation 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > General Impression 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Scene Safety 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > History Taking 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Head-to-Toe Assessment 0%
- Secondary Assessment > OPQRST 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Physical Exam 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Vital Signs 0%
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1. When using the OPQRST mnemonic to assess a patient’s pain, what does the “Q” represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pain quality matters: “crushing” or “pressure” = think cardiac; “sharp” or “tearing” = think aortic dissection or pneumothorax; “burning” = think nerve involvement or acid reflux.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2. Which of the following correctly describes the primary purpose of Standard Precautions in EMS?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Standard Precautions = “Treat everyone as if they’re infected.” It’s not about the patient—it’s about your consistent approach.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
3. You respond to an industrial warehouse for a reported chemical spill with multiple symptomatic workers. On approach, you observe a hazmat placard with the number “3” and workers coughing near the entrance. What is your FIRST priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
HazMat placard + symptomatic patients = STAY BACK, stage safely, call dispatch, request HazMat. Never become a victim yourself!
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
4. You respond to a restaurant where a 52-year-old male has collapsed. Bystanders report he was eating dinner when he suddenly stood up, clutched his chest, and fell to the ground. When you arrive, you find him unresponsive with no respirations and no pulse. You begin CPR and apply the AED. The AED analyzes and advises “no shock advised.” You resume CPR. After 2 minutes, you reassess and find the patient has a weak carotid pulse but remains unresponsive with agonal gasps. His skin is pale and cool. What is the MOST appropriate interpretation and next action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ROSC with agonal gasps = positive pressure ventilation needed. Agonal gasps are NOT adequate breathing – BVM continues.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
5. A 67-year-old male was found lying on the floor at his residence. He opens his eyes when you say his name but is confused and cannot follow simple commands. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. How should you categorize his level of consciousness?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A confused patient who responds to voice is “V” on AVPU, even if they can’t follow commands – altered mental status with skin changes suggests shock.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
6. You are called to a residence for a “sick person.” As you approach the front door, you notice a strong chemical odor and see an empty container with a “flammable liquid” label on the porch. The patient is visible through the window, lying on the floor. What should you do first?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chemical smell + unconscious patient = YOU could be next – back up, call HazMat, and stage upwind.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
7. Which of the following medication classes is most likely to mask the typical tachycardic response to hemorrhagic shock in an elderly trauma patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
On beta-blockers and bleeding? Don’t trust the heart rate – look for other signs of shock: hypotension, altered mental status, pale cool skin, delayed capillary refill.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
8. A rural county’s EMS system has experienced significant challenges: average response times exceed 15 minutes, volunteer EMT availability is inconsistent, the nearest hospital is 30 minutes away, and the county lacks a dedicated medical director, relying instead on a neighboring county’s physician who is rarely available for online consultation. The county commissioners ask you to recommend the single MOST critical improvement to address multiple system weaknesses. Which recommendation would have the broadest positive impact?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Medical direction is the foundation of EMS quality. Without it, even the best resources lack proper guidance. Build the foundation first.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
9. A 3-year-old child is brought to you by his panicked mother. She states he was eating grapes when he suddenly started coughing and gagging, then became quiet and turned blue. The child is now silent, clutching his throat, and unable to cough or cry. What is the significance of the child being silent rather than coughing?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Partial obstruction = noisy (coughing, gagging, stridor); complete obstruction = silent (can’t cough, cry, or speak); silence is the danger sign.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
10. An EMT is assessing an unconscious 68-year-old male who fell from a ladder. The patient is unresponsive with sonorous respirations. Manual opening of the airway does not improve breathing quality. What is the most appropriate next step?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Sonorous sounds = tongue blocking. OPA for unconscious, NPA if they gag.”
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
11. A 5-year-old child presents with severe respiratory distress. The parent reports the child has had a barking cough and fever for two days. You observe suprasternal and intercostal retractions, nasal flaring, and stridor. The child is sitting upright and appears anxious. SpO2 is 91% on room air. What is your priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In pediatric respiratory distress with stridor, maintain the position of comfort—never force a child with upper airway obstruction to lie flat.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
12. You are called to a home for a 2-year-old child with difficulty breathing. The mother reports the child has had a barking cough and fever for the past 12 hours. Upon assessment, you note inspiratory stridor, a seal-like barking cough, and hoarse voice. The child is sitting on the mother’s lap and appears anxious but is consolable. SpO2 is 94% on room air. What is the MOST likely diagnosis, and what is the MOST appropriate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Barking seal cough + stridor + hoarse voice = croup; humidified O2 and keep them calm—don’t agitate.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
13. A 45-year-old male was found lying in an alley by bystanders. His radial pulse is absent, but you can palpate a carotid pulse. His skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. What do these findings indicate about his circulatory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
No radial pulse but present carotid pulse = systolic BP likely below 80 mmHg = significant shock until proven otherwise.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
14. You are called to a high school football game where a 17-year-old player collapsed after making a tackle. Bystanders report he “got hit hard and didn’t get up.” The patient is supine on the field, conscious but complaining of neck pain and tingling in both arms. He cannot move his legs. You observe he was wearing a helmet but no shoulder pads. What is your priority action after establishing scene safety?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Sports injuries with head/neck mechanism + neurological deficits = spinal cord injury until proven otherwise. Manual stabilization first, then ALS and careful packaging.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
15. What is the normal respiratory rate range for an adult?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult RR: Normal = 12-20. 20 = tachypnea (distress). 30 = consider ventilation assistance.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
16. Which of the following situations is an example of abandonment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Abandonment = stopping care without transfer to equal/greater provider. Once you touch a patient, you’re responsible until someone else takes over.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
17. According to the START triage system, a patient who is not breathing after a simple airway maneuver should be tagged as which category?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“If they don’t breathe after you open the airway, they’re Black – no second chances in MCI triage.”
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
18. You are transporting a 48-year-old male with hypoglycemia after administering oral glucose. His blood glucose improved from 45 mg/dL to 92 mg/dL, and his mental status has returned to normal. He states he feels fine and wants to refuse further transport. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Capacity = Alert + Oriented + Understands risks + Understands consequences. Document, encourage, but respect autonomy.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
19. You respond to a residence for a 72-year-old female with difficulty breathing. Upon entering the room, you observe the patient sitting upright in a tripod position, using accessory muscles, with audible wheezing. Her skin is pale and diaphoretic. What does your general impression tell you about this patient’s status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tripod position + accessory muscles + diaphoresis = severe respiratory distress. This patient is working as hard as they can to breathe and needs immediate help.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
20. You respond to an industrial accident at a manufacturing plant. Your general impression reveals three injured workers. Worker 1 is standing and holding a bloody towel to his hand, requesting help loudly. Worker 2 is sitting on the ground, holding his abdomen, and appears pale with rapid breathing. Worker 3 is lying on the ground, unresponsive, with a chemical spill near his body and no obvious movement. You are the only EMS provider on scene with no additional resources for 10 minutes. Which patient should you assess and treat first?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In triage, assess the “quiet” patient first—silence can mean dying, while screaming usually means a patent airway.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
21. A 22-year-old male was stabbed in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen during a bar fight. He ran two blocks before collapsing. Your primary assessment reveals: he is responsive to painful stimuli only, his respirations are rapid at 32 breaths per minute and shallow, you cannot palpate a radial pulse but feel a weak thready femoral pulse at 130 beats per minute. His skin is pale, cold, and clammy. You note a 3-inch laceration to the RUQ with minimal external bleeding. What is the MOST accurate interpretation of his circulatory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Absent radial + present femoral pulse = BP ~60-80 mmHg. Penetrating abdominal trauma + shock = internal bleeding until proven otherwise. Immediate transport!
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
22. You respond to a nursing home for a “fall.” Upon arrival, staff reports a 78-year-old female fell out of bed approximately 2 hours ago. She was found on the floor and has not moved since. During your primary assessment, you note: she does not respond to voice or painful stimuli, her respirations are irregular at 8 breaths per minute with sonorous respirations, her radial pulse is bounding but irregular at 52 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 210/120 mmHg. Her pupils are unequal (left 6mm, right 3mm). What is the MOST likely cause and appropriate priority determination?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cushing’s Triad (irregular breathing + bradycardia + hypertension) = increased ICP. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) = impending herniation. Immediate transport!
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
23. A patient has an SpO2 of 82% on room air. What does this indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
SpO2 < 90% = significant hypoxemia = intervene. < 94% with symptoms = oxygen. Normal = 95-100%. Treat the patient, not just the number.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
24. A 24-year-old female is found unresponsive at a party. Friends say she was drinking alcohol and may have taken an unknown substance. When you pinch her trapezius muscle, she extends her arms and legs rigidly. How would you document her AVPU status, and what does this response indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Decorticate = flex arms, extend legs (cortical dysfunction); Decerebrate = extend arms and legs (brainstem dysfunction). Decerebrate is worse and indicates deeper brain injury.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
25. When using OPQRST to assess a patient’s pain, what does the “P” represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Remember: SAMPLE is for history, OPQRST is specifically for pain assessment. “P” in each has a different meaning!
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
26. When is it appropriate to exceed the posted speed limit while operating an emergency vehicle?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Drive as if your family is in every car you pass. Lights/sirens = proceed with caution, not abandon caution. Arrive alive to help.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
27. A 22-year-old male was thrown from his motorcycle and struck his head on the pavement. Bystanders report he was unconscious for approximately 2 minutes, then “woke up” and seemed fine. When you arrive 15 minutes after the incident, he is confused, cannot tell you where he is, and does not remember the accident. He has a superficial abrasion on his forehead. His vital signs are BP 148/92, P 58, R 12. What condition should you suspect, and what is your priority intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Lucid interval after head trauma + Cushing’s triad = epidural hematoma until proven otherwise – TIME IS BRAIN.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
28. A patient makes incomprehensible sounds but does not speak words. What is the verbal component of GCS?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS Verbal: 5=normal, 4=confused, 3=inappropriate words, 2=incomprehensible sounds, 1=none. Moaning = 2.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
29. Which breathing pattern is most characteristic of a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Kussmaul = Kicking out acid (deep, rapid breaths to blow off CO2 in metabolic acidosis).
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
30. Which element of a patient care report (PCR) serves as the primary legal protection for an EMT when a patient later claims inadequate care was provided?
CorrectIncorrectHint
If it wasn’t documented, it didn’t happen. Document all objective findings thoroughly—vital signs, physical exam, interventions, and patient response. This is your best legal protection.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
31. A 22-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is sitting against a wall, appears anxious, and has rapid, shallow breathing. You note bruising to the right side of his chest. He states his pain is “8 out of 10.” What finding during your general impression would most strongly indicate this is a high-priority patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In trauma, the patient’s physiologic response (how they’re breathing, perfusing, and responding) trumps the mechanism itself in determining priority.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
32. What does a placard with a skull and crossbones indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Placard symbols: Flame = Flammable, Skull = Poison, Radiation symbol = Radioactive, Test tubes = Corrosive. When in doubt, stage back and call HazMat.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
33. You are caring for a 72-year-old female with a history of COPD who called for worsening shortness of breath. Her family reports she has been ill with a cold for three days. On primary assessment, you find her sitting in a tripod position, using accessory muscles to breathe. She is alert but cannot speak more than one or two words at a time. Her respirations are 32 per minute with visible intercostal retractions. Her skin is cool and diaphoretic. Breath sounds reveal diffuse wheezing in all lung fields. Her oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. What is the MOST appropriate initial management for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Treat hypoxia first. The hypoxic drive concern in COPD is theoretical; hypoxia is an immediate life threat.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
34. A 68-year-old woman with chest pain is alert, oriented, and refusing transport. She speaks clearly and says, “I know it could be a heart attack, but I’m not going.” What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Serious complaint + competent refusal = get medical direction involved before accepting refusal.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
35. You approach a patient who is pale, diaphoretic, and clutching his chest. What is your immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pale + diaphoretic + chest pain = cardiac emergency. Primary survey first: ABCs. Then oxygen, monitor, aspirin, nitro if appropriate.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
36. A 22-year-old male presents after being found unresponsive at a party. Vital signs are: blood pressure 100/70 mmHg, pulse 52 and regular, respirations 10 and shallow, SpO2 92% on room air. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. Which interpretation of these vital signs is MOST accurate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive at a party + bradypnea + bradycardia + pinpoint pupils (not mentioned but common) = think opioid overdose. Consider naloxone administration.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
37. A 38-year-old female was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She was the unrestrained driver. During the rapid secondary assessment, the EMT notes: bruising across the lower abdomen and hips (seatbelt sign), absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants, and hypotension with a blood pressure of 86/54 mmHg. The patient is alert but anxious. Based on these findings, the EMT should suspect:
CorrectIncorrectHint
Seatbelt sign + silent abdomen + shock = “hollow organ or vascular injury” – think surgical abdomen, prepare for rapid deterioration.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
38. You arrive on scene to find a 19-year-old male actively seizing. Bystanders report he has a history of epilepsy and has been seizing for approximately 3 minutes. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Active seizure = protect from injury, turn on side, never put anything in mouth.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
39. A 70-year-old male presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial drooping, inability to speak clearly (slurred speech), and weakness in his right arm. Using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale, what do these findings indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Time is brain – a positive Cincinnati Stroke Scale means activate stroke alert protocols and transport to a stroke center immediately; don’t wait for additional testing.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
40. What is the primary purpose of a quality improvement (QI) program in EMS?
CorrectIncorrectHint
QI = Quality Improvement, not “Quality Investigation.” Focus on systems, education, and continuous improvement. Learn from mistakes, don’t hide them.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
41. Which of the following MOI findings would require immediate fire department notification for extrication?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Trapped” = Fire department. No exceptions. They have the tools, training, and expertise.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
42. You are called to a skilled nursing facility for an 82-year-old male who fell while transferring from his wheelchair to his bed. He has a 5 cm hematoma on his left hip and reports pain with movement. Staff reports he takes apixaban (Eliquis) and metoprolol. Vital signs are: BP 138/84, HR 72, RR 18, SpO2 95% on room air. Which aspect of this presentation requires the most immediate consideration in your assessment and transport decision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In anticoagulated geriatric patients, the absence of hemodynamic instability doesn’t rule out significant bleeding – their bleeding may be ongoing and concealed.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
43. You respond to a private residence for a 76-year-old male with “weakness.” On arrival, you find the patient sitting in a recliner, appearing fatigued. His wife states he has been “not himself” for two days, sleeping more, refusing to eat, and seeming confused about what day it is. He has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease. Vital signs are: BP 102/58, HR 98, RR 22, SpO2 91% on room air, temperature 97.2°F (36.2°C). The patient denies any pain or discomfort. Based on this presentation, which interpretation best explains the clinical picture?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric patients, “not feeling well” with altered mental status and hypothermia IS sepsis until proven otherwise – don’t wait for fever that may never come.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
44. You respond to a multi-vehicle collision on an interstate highway involving a passenger car, a semi-truck, and a motorcycle. Scene size-up reveals: the passenger car rear-ended the semi-truck at highway speed, the motorcyclist was ejected and struck the guardrail, and there is a fuel leak from the semi-truck with no fire currently. The semi-truck driver is walking and talking, the car driver is unresponsive in the vehicle, and the motorcyclist is approximately 30 feet from the motorcycle, not moving. Traffic is backed up in both directions. Which of the following represents the most appropriate sequence of actions?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In EMS, you’re no good to anyone if you become a patient yourself—scene safety always comes first.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
45. You need to insert a nasopharyngeal airway in an adult male patient. Which of the following correctly describes the proper sizing and insertion technique?
CorrectIncorrectHint
NPA sizing: nose tip to earlobe. Insertion: bevel toward the septum, perpendicular to the face, then angle down following the nasal floor.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
46. A 28-year-old male was stabbed in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. He is alert but anxious. His skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. His heart rate is 118 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 100/74 mmHg. Which statement BEST describes this patient’s condition?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Blood pressure lies, heart rate tells the truth” – BP can remain normal until 30% blood loss; tachycardia and skin signs reveal compensated shock earlier.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
47. You are dispatched to a residential address for a “person not feeling well.” En route, dispatch updates: 72-year-old female, sudden onset right-sided weakness and facial droop, last seen normal 90 minutes ago. Your ALS unit is 10 minutes out; the nearest stroke center is 35 minutes by ground; air transport is available with 15-minute ETA to scene. Analyze the resource and transport decisions for this scenario.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Stroke = time is brain. If ground to stroke center >30 min, think air. Activate early.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
48. Which of the following mechanisms of injury is MOST likely to cause significant internal bleeding that may not be immediately apparent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When evaluating falls, remember the “critical height” threshold: falls from greater than 10-15 feet (or 2-3 times the patient’s height for children) warrant a high index of suspicion for internal injuries.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
49. Which cardiac rhythm is characterized by chaotic, disorganized electrical activity with no identifiable QRS complexes on the ECG, and is associated with no pulse?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chaotic waves = VF (shock it); flat line = asystole (CPR only); organized but no pulse = PEA (CPR and epinephrine).
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
50. You are first on scene of a cardiac arrest. A 55-year-old male is pulseless and apneic. You begin CPR and your partner prepares the AED. Your service protocols allow for a supraglottic airway device. Your partner asks whether they should insert the supraglottic airway immediately or wait until after the first AED analysis. Which approach is CORRECT and why?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cardiac arrest priorities: CPR first → AED analyze ASAP → airway after first shock/analysis. Minimize compression interruptions.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
51. A 52-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes is found unresponsive in his vehicle. His wife reports he seemed confused and irritable earlier in the day but refused to eat. On assessment, you note pale, cool, diaphoretic skin; a rapid, weak pulse; and blood glucose of 32 mg/dL. Which pathophysiological process BEST explains his deterioration from confusion to unresponsiveness?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The brain runs on glucose only – no backup fuel. That’s why hypoglycemia causes rapid mental status decline.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
52. A patient has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute with minimal chest rise. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Inadequate breathing (RR 30, poor chest rise, cyanosis) = BVM ventilation. Don’t delay. Assist breathing immediately.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
53. A patient with epiglottitis has a muffled voice and is drooling. What should you avoid?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Epiglottitis: Drooling, muffled voice, tripod position, fever. DON’T look in throat with tongue blade. Keep calm, don’t agitate, allow preferred position, rapid transport.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
54. During a primary assessment, you check for a radial pulse. If the radial pulse is palpable, what minimum systolic blood pressure (SBP) can you estimate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Radial = 80, Carotid = 60 – remember these numbers to quickly estimate SBP without a cuff.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
55. You are performing CPR on a 65-year-old male in cardiac arrest. After 2 minutes of compressions, the AED analyzes the rhythm and advises “No shock advised.” What should you do next?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“No shock = Resume compressions immediately. Every second without CPR decreases survival chances.”
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
56. A 58-year-old female complains of chest pain that started 20 minutes ago. During your primary assessment, you note she is alert but anxious. Her skin is warm and dry. You palpate a radial pulse of 88 that is regular and strong. What is your NEXT immediate action in the primary assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Complete the ABCs before moving to interventions. Airway → Breathing → Circulation → Disability → Exposure.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
57. A trauma patient is unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli, has mottled and cold skin, and no palpable peripheral pulses. You can barely detect a faint carotid pulse. Based on these findings, which stage of shock is this patient in, and what does this indicate about their prognosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The progression from compensated → decompensated → irreversible shock can happen rapidly; early recognition and intervention in compensated shock saves lives.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
58. A patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which medication should be administered FIRST if the patient has no allergies and no contraindications?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Aspirin first, nitro for pain, morphine only if needed—platelet inhibition saves heart muscle.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
59. An EMT responds to a 52-year-old male with sudden onset severe chest pain. During the secondary assessment, the EMT notes: blood pressure 168/94 mmHg, pulse 112 and regular, respirations 24 with crackles heard bilaterally in the lower lung fields, and jugular venous distension (JVD) visible when the patient is at a 45-degree angle. The EMT should recognize this cluster of findings as MOST suggestive of:
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chest pain + crackles + JVD = “cardiac pump failure until proven otherwise” – think MI with left and right ventricular dysfunction.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
60. An EMT is caring for a patient with a condition that requires medication administration not covered in the standard protocols. The EMT contacts the base station physician via radio, explains the situation, and receives a verbal order to administer the medication. This is an example of:
CorrectIncorrectHint
When in doubt or beyond your protocols, get on the line (online medical direction) – it’s the right call, not a failure.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
61. A patient was the unrestrained driver in a head-on collision at 35 mph. The vehicle has moderate front-end damage, the windshield is starred, and the steering wheel is bent. Which aspect of this MOI is most concerning for internal injuries?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bent steering wheel = think cardiac and aortic injury. The chest took the hit.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
62. A 16-year-old male with a history of asthma is experiencing severe respiratory distress. He is sitting in a tripod position, using accessory muscles, and can only speak one or two words between breaths. He has a prescribed albuterol inhaler. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tripod position + limited speech = severe distress; don’t delay the prescribed bronchodilator.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
63. A trauma patient has a GCS of 8. What is the appropriate transport decision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS ≤ 8 = severe head injury = trauma center. Secure airway (often intubation needed), protect spine, rapid transport. Time = brain tissue.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
64. You arrive at a private residence for a “difficulty breathing” call. As you approach the front door, you hear loud shouting inside and what sounds like glass breaking. A woman runs out the front door crying and yells, “He has a gun!” What is your most appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Weapons + violence = stage and wait for police. No patient contact until scene is secured.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
65. A 7-year-old child is brought to you by his mother. She states he has had a cough and fever for two days. The child is sitting upright, leaning forward with his hands on his knees, drooling and unable to speak. He appears anxious and is making a high-pitched sound when breathing. What is the MOST likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate management?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Tripod, drool, and silence = epiglottitis” – the combination of tripod positioning, drooling, and inability to speak is a red flag for this life-threatening infection.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
66. A 68-year-old male with COPD is in respiratory distress with labored breathing, an SpO2 of 86%, and appears exhausted. He is using accessory muscles and can only speak in short phrases. What is the MOST appropriate oxygen delivery?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoxic COPD patient in distress? Give oxygen! Target SpO2 88-92% for stable COPD, but never withhold oxygen from a patient in acute distress. Treat the patient, not the number.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
67. A patient with difficulty breathing has an SpO2 of 88% on room air. After applying oxygen via non-rebreather at 15 L/min, the SpO2 is still 91%. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoxemia on NRB? Consider CPAP (if available) or BVM assistance. Some patients can’t oxygenate with passive oxygen alone.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
68. A 45-year-old male with severe chest pain refuses transport despite your explanation of the risks. He is alert, oriented to person, place, and time, and understands your concerns. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Informed refusal requires: Decision-making capacity, explanation of risks/benefits, understanding demonstrated, voluntary decision. Document conversations, attempts to persuade, and patient’s understanding.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
69. You are ventilating an unconscious patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice secretions accumulating in the posterior pharynx. The patient has an oropharyngeal airway in place. What is the appropriate sequence for suctioning?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Suction smart: Remove the OPA, suction for 10 seconds max, replace the OPA, and get back to breathing. The patient needs oxygen, not a clean throat.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
70. A 45-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is found wandering in traffic. When you approach, he appears disheveled, is talking to himself, and does not respond to your questions. He becomes agitated when you attempt to assess him and shouts, “They’re coming to get me!” What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Psychotic patient = calm voice, safe distance, and no sudden moves; request police backup before attempting restraint.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
71. You respond to a motor vehicle collision involving a minivan and a tanker truck. The tanker displays a placard with the number 1993. The driver of the tanker is ambulatory and states the tank is about half full. The minivan has three passengers, one of whom is complaining of back pain. There is no visible leak or spill. What resources should you request?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tanker placard = HazMat call – even without a visible leak, treat it as a hazardous materials scene.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
72. You respond to a call for a 55-year-old male with “weakness.” On arrival, you find him sitting in a chair, speaking clearly but with a slight facial droop. He states he felt “funny” this morning and has had trouble holding his coffee cup with his right hand. Vital signs are stable. He lives alone and wants to stay home. What is your assessment and action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Clear speech does NOT rule out stroke—facial droop, arm weakness, or any focal neurological deficit requires immediate emergency transport regardless of how “stable” the patient appears.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
73. A patient has a blood pressure of 180/110 with severe headache and blurred vision. What should you suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypertensive emergency = high BP + end-organ symptoms (headache, vision changes, chest pain, AMS, dyspnea). SBP often >180. Emergent but controlled lowering.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
74. A patient responds only by withdrawing from painful stimuli. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) motor response score?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS Motor: 6 = follows commands, 5 = localizes pain, 4 = withdraws from pain, 3 = flexion (decorticate), 2 = extension (decerebrate), 1 = none.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
75. A 19-year-old female with type 1 diabetes called 911 for weakness and confusion. On arrival, she is alert but disoriented to time and place. Her roommate reports she has been studying for finals and hasn’t eaten in 8 hours. Blood glucose is 48 mg/dL. After administering oral glucose, her mental status improves within 10 minutes. What mechanism BEST explains her rapid improvement?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Brain cells starved of glucose = confusion. Feed them = rapid recovery. It’s that simple.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
76. A 68-year-old female with diabetes is found confused by her family. When you assess her, she looks at you when you speak but cannot tell you her name, where she is, or what day it is. She does not respond to questions appropriately but does not require any stimulus to keep her eyes open. What is her AVPU status and orientation level?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Alert ≠ oriented. A patient can be Alert (eyes open spontaneously) but have altered mental status (confused, disoriented). Document both: AVPU status AND orientation level.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
77. A 55-year-old woman with known cardiac history develops anaphylaxis after receiving IV contrast during a CT scan at an outpatient imaging center. She is conscious but severely distressed with widespread hives, tongue swelling, wheezing, and a blood pressure of 76/42 mmHg. The imaging center nurse asks if she should administer the patient’s cardiac medication (a beta-blocker) for her racing heart. What is the most appropriate response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Beta-blockers are kryptonite to epinephrine in anaphylaxis – they can block the rescue drug’s lifesaving effects.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
78. Which set of findings BEST describes a patient with a “sick” general impression requiring immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Sick vs. Not Sick” is your first critical decision. When multiple “sick” indicators appear together, act quickly – the patient is telling you something is wrong.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
79. Which of the following findings would be MOST concerning for a cervical spinal cord injury in a trauma patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bilateral deficits in arms AND legs = think cervical spinal cord. Time is critical for potential surgical decompression.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
80. You arrive at a house fire with three victims. Patient A is walking and coughing. Patient B is sitting, alert, with burns to both arms. Patient C is unconscious with soot around the nose and mouth and singed nasal hairs. Which patient should be your highest priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In burn patients, singed nasal hairs, soot in airway, and altered mental status = airway emergency. Secure airway before it closes.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
81. You respond to a two-story residential home for a fall. Dispatch reports a 68-year-old male fell from a ladder while cleaning gutters. What resources should you consider requesting based on this MOI?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Falls from >20 feet or >2× patient height = high MOI. Think spinal, internal bleeding, and ALS.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
82. Which action is the FIRST priority when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle collision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Scene safety is always priority #1. An injured EMT becomes part of the problem, not part of the solution.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
83. Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at a motor vehicle collision on a two-lane rural road. There are two vehicles involved with moderate damage and no obvious hazards. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Block first, then work” – the ambulance is your shield against traffic before you ever touch a patient.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
84. A 52-year-old male is found lying on a park bench. When you approach and call his name, he slowly opens his eyes but does not speak. He closes his eyes again when you stop talking. What is his AVPU classification?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Verbal response = patient reacts to your voice (opening eyes, moving, or making sounds). Even limited response counts – they don’t have to answer questions appropriately.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
85. You respond to a two-vehicle collision on a rural highway at night. As you approach, you see both vehicles have moderate damage and there appear to be three patients walking around. You smell diesel fuel and notice one vehicle is leaking fluid. The nearest hospital is 25 minutes away, and ALS is 15 minutes out. Analyze this scene and determine the BEST initial action.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Fuel leak + collision = bomb scene – stage back, call fire, and let them make it safe before you make it medical.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
86. You arrive at a residence for a 45-year-old male with chest pain. As you approach, you note he is clutching his chest, pale, sweating profusely, and breathing rapidly. What is your IMMEDIATE priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When your general impression screams “sick,” minimize scene time – the hospital is the treatment for STEMI and many other emergencies.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
87. A 23-year-old male is actively seizing when you arrive. The seizure has lasted approximately 4 minutes. He has a history of epilepsy. His airway is patent, and he is cyanotic around the lips. What is the PRIORITY intervention for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Seizing patient: side-lying position, protect from harm, nothing in mouth, time the seizure—call ALS if it exceeds 5 minutes.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
88. A 45-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has a bruise across his abdomen from the seatbelt. His vital signs are: BP 88/54 mmHg, HR 122/min, RR 26/min, SpO2 94% on room air. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. He is alert but anxious. Based on these findings, approximately how much blood volume has he likely lost?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tachycardia alone = Class I or II; add hypotension = Class III; unresponsive with severe hypotension = Class IV.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
89. An EMT assesses vital signs on a 68-year-old female complaining of dizziness. The blood pressure reading is 92/58 mmHg, pulse is 104 and weak, respirations are 22, and skin is pale and diaphoretic. Which statement BEST interprets these findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypotension + tachycardia + pale/diaphoretic skin = the classic shock triad. Don’t dismiss it as anxiety.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
90. You arrive on scene to find a 68-year-old male who was involved in a low-speed motor vehicle collision. He is walking around the scene, talking to bystanders, and states he feels “fine.” He has a small bruise on his forehead. What is the most appropriate determination regarding this patient’s priority status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric trauma patients, assume the worst until proven otherwise—their presentation often doesn’t match the severity of their injuries.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
91. A 55-year-old patient with pneumonia presents with fever, productive cough, and crackles in the right lower lobe. Her SpO2 is 91% on room air. She is alert but appears fatigued. Which intervention is MOST appropriate for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pneumonia needs O2 and comfort position; save the bronchodilators for wheezing and CPAP for wet lungs from heart failure.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
92. You respond to a motor vehicle collision. There are three patients. Patient A is walking around and complaining of neck pain. Patient B is sitting on the curb, alert, with a deformed right thigh. Patient C is unconscious, not responding to voice, and has unequal pupils. Which patient is your highest priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Altered mental status with unequal pupils = think head injury = rapid transport priority.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
93. You are dispatched to a residence for a “sick person.” As you approach the house, you see broken glass on the front porch and hear loud arguing inside. A police unit is staging one block away. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Broken glass and arguing mean stop and stage – let police make the scene safe before you make patient contact.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
94. A 30-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is conscious but complaining of neck pain. His airway is patent, and he is speaking clearly. You note that he was the unrestrained driver. What is the MOST appropriate method to open his airway if it becomes compromised?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Trauma + potential spinal injury = jaw thrust only. Never tilt the head when spinal injury is possible.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
95. You are assessing a 68-year-old female with a suspected stroke. She is breathing at 8 breaths per minute with shallow chest rise. Her SpO2 reads 91% on room air. During your primary assessment, you note that her airway is patent but she is unable to protect her airway due to decreased gag reflex. What should be your immediate priority intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Rate below 10 with shallow breathing = inadequate ventilation. Supplemental oxygen isn’t enough when the patient isn’t breathing adequately – they need ventilation.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
96. In ICS, what is the term for the location where the Incident Commander manages the incident?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Command Post = IC’s location. Green lights/flag. Safe spot with incident visibility. Go here to check in and get assignments.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
97. During a secondary assessment, the EMT uses the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS to systematically evaluate for signs of injury. What does the “T” in this mnemonic represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“T” in DCAP-BTLS = Tenderness to palpation. Always palpate gently and watch the patient’s face for pain response.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
98. You respond to a call for a “psychiatric emergency” at a private residence. Dispatch reports the patient is a 35-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia who has been off his medications for two weeks. Family reports he is “acting paranoid and has a knife.” As you approach the scene, you see the patient standing on the front lawn holding a large kitchen knife. He is shouting at passing cars. What is your most appropriate immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Armed + psychiatric = police first, always; EMS never approaches until law enforcement confirms the weapon is secured and scene is safe.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
99. An EMT responds to a patient with a productive cough and fever. The patient mentions recent international travel. Which PPE combination is MOST appropriate for initial contact?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Think “travel + respiratory symptoms = airborne precautions” – reach for the N95, not the surgical mask.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
100. A 45-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is extricated from the vehicle and placed on a backboard. When you approach, you note that he is speaking clearly and states, “My neck really hurts.” During your primary assessment, you ask him to squeeze your fingers and wiggle his toes. He follows all commands appropriately. What does this indicate about his neurological status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Normal motor function in the field doesn’t mean “no spinal injury” – it means “no spinal cord injury YET.” Maintain precautions and document findings.
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