The test includes questions across key areas: Scene Size-Up (~17 questions), Primary Assessment (~42 questions), Secondary Assessment (~7 questions), Patient Treatment (~22 questions), and Operations (~12 questions). This comprehensive breakdown ensures you’re thoroughly prepared for every topic on the NREMT.
Pro tips for success:
1. Time management – Pace yourself to mimic real exam conditions.
2. Review weak areas – Use results to focus on challenging topics.
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Categories
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Communications 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Consent 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > EMS Systems 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Ethics 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Hazardous Materials 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Legal Issues 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > MCI and Triage 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Professionalism 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Radio Communication 0%
- Operations > Documentation & Communication 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Airway Management 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > BVM Ventilation 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Cardiac Arrest 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Neurological Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Spinal Immobilization 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Bleeding Control 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Cardiac 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Diabetic Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Epinephrine 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatrics – Atypical Presentations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Medical Emergencies – Diabetic Emergency 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Medical Emergencies – Overdose/Toxicology 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Oxygen Therapy 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pediatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pharmacology – Aspirin 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory – COPD 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory – Pulmonary Edema 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory Distress 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Trauma Emergencies 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Breathing Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Initial Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness (LOC) 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Mental Status 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of NREMT EMT exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > MOI/NOI (Mechanism of Injury) 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Resource Utilization 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Standard Precautions 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > History Taking 0%
- Secondary Assessment > OPQRST 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Physical Exam 0%
- Secondary Assessment > SAMPLE History 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Vital Signs 0%
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1. A 60-year-old female with a history of diabetes is found confused at her home. Her family states she was fine this morning but became increasingly disoriented over the past hour. On assessment, she opens her eyes to voice, can tell you her name but not where she is, and is diaphoretic with cool, clammy skin. Her blood glucose reads 38 mg/dL. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her altered level of consciousness, and what should be your immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoglycemia can mimic any neurological emergency – always check blood glucose in patients with altered LOC, especially diabetics. Low blood sugar = fast fix with glucose.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2. A patient appears to be in severe distress, is pale and diaphoretic, and is clutching the abdomen. What is your immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Severe distress + shock signs = ABCs first. What’s killing them? Airway? Breathing? Bleeding? Fix life threats, then investigate cause.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
3. A 71-year-old male with severe COPD requires supplemental oxygen. After applying 2 L/min via nasal cannula, his SpO2 increases from 84% to 97%. The patient becomes drowsy and his respiratory rate decreases from 18 to 8 breaths per minute. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When COPD gets too much O2 and gets sleepy, turn it down—not off—to find the sweet spot at 88-92%.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
4. A 70-year-old male with a history of diabetes is found confused at home by his family. When you speak to him, he opens his eyes and looks at you but cannot tell you what day it is or where he is. He is able to state his name. What is his AVPU status and orientation level?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Alert vs. Verbal: Alert = eyes open spontaneously, interacts; Verbal = requires voice stimulation to interact. Orientation ×3 = person, place, time.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
5. An EMT arrives at a residence and finds a 45-year-old male sitting on the edge of his bed, leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pale and diaphoretic, and he speaks in two-word sentences. Based on the general impression, what is this patient’s priority status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Tripoding + pale/diaphoretic + short speech = SICK patient. Act fast.”
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
6. What does the acronym MOI stand for in the context of scene size-up?
CorrectIncorrectHint
MOI tells you WHAT happened to the patient; NOI (Nature of Illness) tells you what’s WRONG with the patient.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
7. A 52-year-old male with diabetes is found unresponsive in his home. Family reports he has been sick with the flu and has not been eating well. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. Blood glucose reads 38 mg/dL. The patient cannot swallow safely. What is the MOST appropriate treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unconscious hypoglycemic patient = oral glucose buccally. The mucosa absorbs glucose even without swallowing.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
8. An 81-year-old woman is found by her daughter lying on the kitchen floor, unable to get up. She states she thinks she fell about 6 hours ago while getting a glass of water. She denies loss of consciousness but says she felt “dizzy” before falling. Her medication list includes: lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, metoprolol, warfarin, and oxybutynin. Vital signs are: BP 94/62, HR 58, RR 16, SpO2 94% on room air. Which combination of factors from this scenario most significantly increases her risk of recurrent falls?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When an elderly patient falls, count the medications – beta-blockers, anticholinergics, diuretics, and antihypertensives are the “fall cocktail.”
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
9. When providing positive pressure ventilation to an adult patient using a bag-valve-mask (BVM), what is the correct rate and volume?
CorrectIncorrectHint
One breath every 5-6 seconds = 10-12 breaths/min. Watch for visible chest rise to confirm adequate volume.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
10. A patient opens her eyes to pain, uses inappropriate words, and withdraws from pain. What is her GCS?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS: Eyes (1-4), Verbal (1-5), Motor (1-6). E2V3M4 = 9. Score ≤ 8 = severe. 9-12 = moderate. 13-15 = mild.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
11. A patient appears anxious, is sweating, and has difficulty breathing. What is your immediate concern?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Anxiety + diaphoresis + breathing difficulty = serious. Check ABCs, SpO2, blood glucose. The “anxiety” may be air hunger.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
12. A patient with significant blood loss from a traumatic leg injury presents with tachycardia, pale and cool skin, and confusion. Which of these findings is the earliest reliable sign of hemorrhagic shock?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tachycardia is the canary in the coal mine for hemorrhagic shock – spot it early, act fast.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
13. You are assessing a 55-year-old male who fell from a ladder. During your primary assessment, you note a deep laceration on his thigh with dark red blood steadily flowing from the wound. His skin is pale and cool, and his radial pulse is rapid at 112 beats per minute. What is your IMMEDIATE priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Venous bleeding (dark red, steady) = direct pressure first. Arterial bleeding (bright red, spurting) = tourniquet immediately.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
14. What does the “M” in the SAMPLE mnemonic represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
SAMPLE = Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events leading up. “M” is Medical history, not medications!
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
15. An EMT responds to a call for a patient with chronic pain who frequently uses EMS services. The patient’s pain is not an emergency, but they insist on being transported. The EMT feels frustrated but recognizes an ethical obligation. Which ethical principle MOST directly applies to providing care without judgment in this situation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Justice = treating ALL patients fairly, even the “frequent flyers” who frustrate you. Your feelings don’t change their rights.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
16. A 25-year-old male was struck in the right side of the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is alert, breathing with moderate effort, and complains of sharp pain on inspiration. You note bruising and crepitus over ribs 5-8 on the right lateral chest. Based on the mechanism of injury and assessment findings, what associated injury should you be MOST concerned about?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Rib fractures aren’t just broken bones—they’re markers for what’s underneath. Multiple rib fractures with crepitus should prompt immediate concern for pneumothorax and pulmonary contusion.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
17. Which of the following correctly describes the AVPU scale component where a patient opens their eyes and responds appropriately when you say their name?
CorrectIncorrectHint
AVPU progresses from best (Alert) to worst (Unresponsive) – think “A-V-P-U” as decreasing levels of consciousness.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
18. You respond to a single-vehicle collision on a rural highway at night. As you approach, you note moderate damage to the driver’s side door, a downed power line across the vehicle, and the driver slumped over the steering wheel. There are no other vehicles at the scene. What is your MOST appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Parked” vehicles with downed power lines remain energized. Stay at least one full span of the utility pole away (typically 30+ feet) until the utility company confirms the line is de-energized.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
19. What is the correct sequence for the primary assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ABCDE: Airway → Breathing → Circulation → Disability → Exposure. Fix problems as you find them. Don’t move on until the current step is stable.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
20. A patient has paradoxical chest wall movement after trauma. What does this indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Flail chest = ≥2 ribs broken in ≥2 places = free-floating segment = paradoxical movement. Serious injury. May need positive pressure ventilation.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
21. A patient has a respiratory rate of 32 and is using accessory muscles. What does this indicate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Respiratory distress: Tachypnea, accessory muscles, tripoding, can’t speak full sentences. Watch for fatigue = respiratory failure. Intervene before they tire out.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
22. A 62-year-old female presents with sudden onset of severe headache followed by vomiting and rapid deterioration in consciousness. She now responds only to painful stimuli with decorticate posturing. Her blood pressure is 220/130 mmHg, and her pulse is 50 beats/min. Her skin is warm and dry. Which combination of findings is MOST concerning and indicates the need for immediate transport?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Decorticate (flexion) or decerebrate (extension) posturing with Cushing’s triad indicates herniation syndrome – time-critical emergency requiring immediate transport.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
23. A 22-year-old football player is found unresponsive after a helmet-to-helmet collision during practice. He is not breathing and has no pulse. He is wearing a properly fitted football helmet with a face shield. What is the most appropriate action regarding his helmet?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Remove helmets when they interfere with airway management, CPR, or proper immobilization—always use a two-rescuer technique.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
24. What is the correct dose and concentration of epinephrine for an adult patient (>30 kg) when administered via auto-injector for anaphylaxis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult auto-injector = 0.3 mg; Pediatric auto-injector = 0.15 mg. Both use 1:1000 concentration for IM injection.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
25. You respond to a construction site where a worker fell 20 feet from a scaffold onto concrete. The patient is conscious and complains of severe back pain. He insists on walking to the ambulance. What is your most appropriate response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Height + hard surface = automatic spinal precautions – patient preference doesn’t change physics.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
26. During a multi-casualty incident, you hear the following radio exchange: Dispatch: “All units, MVC with multiple patients, Engine 7 on scene requesting two additional ambulances.” Medic 2: “Medic 2 responding from downtown, ETA 8 minutes.” Engine 7: “Engine 7 to Dispatch, we have three patients, one critical, two minor, need one additional BLS unit.” Medic 1: “Medic 1 also available, we can respond from the east side.” Dispatch: “Medic 1, return to your station, you’re not requested on this call.” Medic 2: “Medic 2, what’s the exact location?” Which communication errors occurred during this exchange?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In mass casualty incidents, radio discipline saves lives: respond when called, listen before transmitting, never self-dispatch.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
27. You are dispatched to a “psychiatric emergency” at a private residence. Dispatch reports that the patient is a 28-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia who has been off his medications for two weeks. Family reports he has been “talking to people who aren’t there” and has been “acting paranoid.” While en route, dispatch updates that the patient has armed himself with a kitchen knife and has made threats to “anyone who comes near.” Police are staging nearby. What is your most appropriate response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
An armed patient who has made threats is not your patient—yet. They’re a scene safety issue. Let police secure first.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
28. You arrive on scene of an industrial accident. A worker has been impaled by a metal rod in his right upper thigh. The rod is still in place with minimal external bleeding. The patient is alert, pale, and reports pain at 8/10. His vital signs are: BP 100/68 mmHg, pulse 110 bpm, respirations 20. Which of the following correctly identifies his priority status and appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Impaled object = leave it, stabilize it, transport fast—removal is the surgeon’s job.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
29. A paramedic supervisor notices that EMTs at one station consistently score lower on patient assessment competency during annual evaluations compared to other stations. Which component of the EMS system should address this through targeted training programs?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Education = keeping skills sharp. When competency gaps appear, education bridges them.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
30. EMS responds to a 58-year-old male with chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is sitting upright, clutching his chest, with ashen gray skin color. He is diaphoretic and breathing rapidly but can speak in complete sentences. His wife reports he has a history of hypertension and smoked for 30 years. Based on the general impression, which combination of findings MOST strongly suggests a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
General impression = current status, not history. Ashen gray = hypoperfusion/shock; diaphoresis = sympathetic crisis; together with chest pain = think STEMI/cardiogenic shock.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
31. You arrive at a scene where a 4-year-old child is unresponsive and not breathing. After confirming no pulse, you begin single-rescuer CPR. What compression depth and ratio should you use?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Child CPR: 2 inches deep, 30:2 single rescuer, 15:2 two rescuers. Infant CPR: 1.5 inches deep with same ratios.”
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
32. A 66-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation complains of sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. His wife reports the symptoms began about 45 minutes ago. Which additional history question is MOST critical for determining treatment options?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Stroke + atrial fibrillation history = ask about blood thinners immediately. This changes everything about hospital treatment.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
33. You are treating a 64-year-old male with chest pain suggestive of acute coronary syndrome. You have obtained medical direction authorization to assist with aspirin. The patient has his own bottle of 81 mg aspirin tablets. What is the correct dose and administration route?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ACS = Aspirin Chewed & Swallowed. Chew the tablets to get that antiplatelet effect working fast – 162-325 mg is the sweet spot.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
34. A 6-month-old infant is found unresponsive. The mother reports the baby was fine before naptime. When you assess the infant, you note the infant is limp, cyanotic, and not breathing. You do not feel a pulse. What is the MOST appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Infant cardiac arrest = start compressions NOW; two rescuers use 15:2, one rescuer uses 30:2.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
35. A 58-year-old male presents with chest pain that he describes as “crushing” and radiating to his left arm and jaw. He is diaphoretic, nauseated, and appears anxious. Which finding is MOST characteristic of an acute myocardial infarction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
If the chest pain lasts longer than 15 minutes at rest and nitro doesn’t touch it, think MI—not just angina.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
36. You are assessing a 78-year-old female who woke up suddenly at 3 AM with severe shortness of breath. She is sitting upright in bed, appears anxious, and has pink, frothy sputum coming from her mouth. Bilateral crackles are heard on auscultation. Her blood pressure is 168/94 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate field treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pink frothy sputum + bilateral crackles + sudden onset at night = acute pulmonary edema until proven otherwise.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
37. Which of the following abbreviations is approved for use in PCR documentation in most EMS systems?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When in doubt, spell it out – only use abbreviations that are on your agency’s approved list.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
38. You respond to a call for a “person down” at a local park. On arrival, you find a 68-year-old male lying on a bench. He responds to verbal stimuli with incomprehensible sounds. His skin is warm, dry, and pink. His respirations are 16 breaths/min and regular. His radial pulse is present and regular at 76 bpm. Which component of your general impression would be MOST concerning and why?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“AVPU isn’t just a score – if they’re not Alert, something’s wrong.”
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
39. A trauma patient has a seat belt sign across the abdomen. What injuries should you anticipate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Seat belt sign = significant force = think internal injuries. Hollow organ perforation, solid organ injury, vascular injury. Monitor for shock, abdominal pain, distension.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
40. You respond to a motor vehicle collision where a 17-year-old male was driving. He appears emancipated—he states he lives alone, works full-time, and pays his own bills. He has a fractured femur and requires transport. He refuses treatment. Which statement BEST describes your legal obligation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cannot verify emancipation on scene = contact medical direction for any minor refusing serious care.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
41. You are called to a residence for a 62-year-old male with altered mental status. Upon arrival, his wife states he has a history of seizures and was found on the floor this morning unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals: he is unresponsive to voice and pain, his airway is open, breathing is shallow at 8 breaths per minute, radial pulse is 88 and regular. His skin is pale and dry. You note dried blood on his tongue and bruising on his face consistent with a fall. You attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway, but he gags when it contacts his posterior pharynx. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Gag reflex present = no OPA. Use NPA instead. The NPA is tolerated in patients with intact gag reflexes.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
42. According to the pulse-blood pressure correlation taught in EMT courses, what is the minimum estimated systolic blood pressure if a patient has a palpable radial pulse?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Radial = ≥80, Femoral = ≥70, Carotid = ≥60 – work from central to peripheral when assessing for shock.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
43. You are dispatched to a 26-year-old female, 34 weeks pregnant, who was the restrained driver in a moderate-speed motor vehicle collision. During your primary assessment, she complains of abdominal pain and appears anxious. Her vital signs are: BP 100/70 mmHg, HR 108 bpm, RR 22, SpO2 96%. She has a contusion across her lower abdomen from the seatbelt. While her vital signs are stable, why is this patient considered a priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Third-trimester trauma + abdominal pain = placental abruption until proven otherwise—vital signs can be deceiving, transport urgently for fetal monitoring.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
44. When assessing a patient’s level of consciousness using the AVPU scale, what does the “V” represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
AVPU = Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive – each letter represents a decreasing level of consciousness.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
45. You respond to a 28-year-old male who crashed his motorcycle. During your primary assessment, you cannot palpate a radial pulse but can feel a weak carotid pulse. His skin is pale, cool, and clammy. What is the significance of the absent radial pulse with present carotid pulse?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Absent radial + present carotid pulse = systolic BP approximately 60-80 mmHg. This is a critical finding indicating decompensated shock.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
46. You respond to a “person down” call at a shopping mall. When you arrive, you find a 45-year-old male lying on the floor. Bystanders report he suddenly collapsed while walking. Your primary assessment reveals: he is unresponsive to voice and pain, has snoring respirations at 8 breaths per minute, his skin is flushed and warm, and his radial pulse is strong at 68 beats per minute. Based on your general impression and primary assessment, what is the MOST likely underlying problem?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Snoring respirations in an unresponsive patient = tongue obstructing the airway. Open the airway immediately with head-tilt, chin-lift.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
47. Which of the following vital sign changes indicates a patient has transitioned from compensated to decompensated shock?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Blood pressure is the LAST vital sign to drop in shock—by the time BP falls, the patient is already decompensating.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
48. A 67-year-old male with a history of COPD complains of shortness of breath. During your primary assessment, you note he is able to speak in full sentences, has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 92% on room air, and bilateral wheezing. Should this patient be categorized as a priority patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In respiratory complaints, inability to speak full sentences is a key indicator of severity and potential priority status.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
49. You are dispatched to a 71-year-old male with COPD who is having difficulty breathing. Family reports he has been using his home oxygen concentrator at 4 L/min. The patient appears cyanotic and is breathing 8 times per minute with minimal chest rise. What is the most appropriate oxygen therapy for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In respiratory failure, treat the patient, not the history – BVM anyone with inadequate rate or tidal volume, regardless of COPD status.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
50. A 52-year-old male complains of chest pain. When asked what makes the pain worse, he reports that taking a deep breath significantly increases the discomfort. Which OPQRST component does this response address?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pleuritic pain (worse with breathing) suggests pleural irritation – think pleurisy, pneumonia, pneumothorax, or pulmonary embolism.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
51. You arrive at a residence for a patient with difficulty breathing. The patient is alert but struggling to speak in full sentences, has audible wheezing, and is using accessory muscles. Oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which resource should you request while preparing for transport?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Severe respiratory distress with wheezing and accessory muscle use = think ALS for medications and advanced airway.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
52. A 71-year-old female has sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her husband notes the symptoms started about 2 hours ago. Blood pressure is 168/94, blood glucose is 95 mg/dL. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Stroke = Time is Brain. Transport to stroke center within 4.5 hours of symptom onset for tPA eligibility. Use Cincinnati Stroke Scale: facial droop, arm drift, speech.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
53. An EMT responds to a residence for a “sick person.” Upon entering, the EMT observes a 58-year-old woman sitting upright in bed, appearing anxious. Her skin is cool and diaphoretic, and she is using accessory muscles to breathe. She tries to answer questions but can only manage one or two words before gasping. Her husband reports she has a history of congestive heart failure. Based on this general impression and the patient’s presentation, what is the MOST appropriate interpretation and initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“CHF + tripoding + accessory muscles + diaphoresis = flash pulmonary edema. Position sitting, oxygen, rapid transport.”
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
54. What is the role of EMS personnel at a HazMat incident before decontamination is complete?
CorrectIncorrectHint
EMS at HazMat: Stage in cold zone, prepare for deconned patients, stay out of hot/warm zones unless trained. Don’t become a victim.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
55. You are called to a residence for a 34-year-old male with cough and fever. He recently returned from international travel. As you approach, you observe the patient is wearing a surgical mask and mentions his sister was diagnosed with tuberculosis last week. What PPE is most appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Suspected TB = airborne precautions = N95 respirator (minimum). Add eye protection for coughing patients to protect from splashes.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
56. You are assessing a 78-year-old female who lives alone. Her daughter called 911 because her mother has been “acting confused” for the past two days. The patient denies any pain or discomfort. Her vital signs are: BP 98/62 mmHg, HR 102/min, RR 24/min, SpO2 94% on room air. She is afebrile. What is the most likely cause of her altered mental status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric patients, think infection first when evaluating acute mental status changes – especially UTIs and pneumonia, which often present without fever or localizing symptoms.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
57. You arrive at a scene with significant background noise from construction equipment. The patient is a 72-year-old female with difficulty breathing. You need to call in a radio report to the receiving hospital. What is the BEST approach to ensure effective communication?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When noise fights your message, change the environment, not your professionalism.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
58. You respond to a motor vehicle collision. A 35-year-old male was the unrestrained driver. He is walking around the scene, talking on his phone, and tells you “I’m fine, just a little shaken up.” You observe a small laceration on his forehead. What should your general impression tell you?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Walking and talking” after trauma doesn’t mean “stable” – adrenaline can mask serious injuries for 15-30 minutes or more.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
59. A 28-year-old male was found unresponsive by friends who report he may have taken several opioid pills. His respirations are 6 breaths/min and shallow. His pupils are pinpoint (1 mm bilaterally). What is the MOST appropriate treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Opioid overdose triad: respiratory depression + pinpoint pupils + unresponsiveness = naloxone.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
60. You arrive at a motor vehicle collision and find three patients. Patient A is walking around complaining of neck pain. Patient B is sitting on the curb with a deformed left forearm. Patient C is unconscious, lying on the ground with rapid, shallow breathing and a weak, thready pulse. Which patient should receive your immediate attention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In multiple casualty incidents, treat the worst patients first—altered LOC, poor perfusion, and respiratory distress are top priorities.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
61. Which of the following findings during your general impression would MOST strongly indicate a patient is “sick” and requires immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When forming your general impression, think “sick until proven stable” – diaphoresis, anxiety, tripod positioning, and inability to speak in full sentences are red flags.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
62. You are assessing a 45-year-old male who complains of feeling “weak and dizzy.” During your primary assessment, you note his skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. His radial pulse is weak and rapid at 118 beats per minute. What do these findings indicate about his circulatory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pale, cool, diaphoretic skin + tachycardia = shock until proven otherwise. Don’t wait for hypotension to recognize it.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
63. A patient has suffered a significant blunt neck injury. What airway concern should you have?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Blunt neck trauma = airway risk. Swelling, hematoma, laryngeal injury. Can deteriorate rapidly. Monitor closely, prepare for difficult airway. C-spine too.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
64. During a secondary assessment physical examination, which technique should generally be performed FIRST for each body region?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Look before you touch. Inspection reveals wounds, deformities, skin color changes, and asymmetry that palpation might obscure.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
65. You are called to care for a 45-year-old male with a productive cough, fever, and neck stiffness. The patient is alert but appears ill. Which combination of PPE is most appropriate for this encounter?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Meningitis = droplet precautions = surgical mask (not N95); add eye protection for coughing patients.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
66. Using the JumpSTART pediatric triage system, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is not breathing. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
JumpSTART for kids: Apneic → 5 rescue breaths → breathing = Immediate, still apneic with pulse = Immediate, no pulse = Expectant. Children need oxygen first!
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
67. A 62-year-old female with a history of congestive heart failure presents with sudden onset of difficulty breathing that woke her from sleep. She is sitting on the edge of her bed, appears anxious, and is using accessory muscles to breathe. Her skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. She can only speak one or two words at a time. What is your general impression, and what does it indicate about her clinical status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea + tripod + one-word sentences = flash pulmonary edema until proven otherwise. Position, oxygenate, CPAP, transport.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
68. You are dispatched to a residence for a 72-year-old male with altered mental status. The family reports he was “fine this morning” but has become progressively more confused over the past 6 hours. On assessment, he does not respond to his name being called loudly. When you apply a sternal rub, he extends both arms and legs rigidly with internal rotation of his wrists. His respirations are irregular at 10 per minute. His blood glucose is 118 mg/dL. What is the MOST accurate interpretation of his AVPU status and neurological findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Decerebrate posturing (extension) = brainstem dysfunction, worse prognosis than decorticate (flexion). Combined with irregular respirations = impending herniation.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
69. A 55-year-old male collapses while shoveling snow. Bystanders state he grabbed his chest and fell. You arrive to find him unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. CPR is initiated, and the AED advises a shock. After the shock, you immediately resume compressions. After 2 minutes, the AED reanalyzes and again advises a shock. You deliver the second shock and resume compressions. The patient remains in cardiac arrest. Which reversible cause should you MOST suspect based on the circumstances?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Sudden collapse with chest pain during exertion = think coronary thrombosis. It’s the most common cause of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest in adults.”
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
70. You are dispatched to a chemical plant for a worker who collapsed near a storage tank. Several other workers appear ill, and there is a strong odor in the air. What is your MOST appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Multiple victims plus strange odor equals hazmat – stage upwind, call for help, and wait for the pros.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
71. You are dispatched to a possible overdose. A 22-year-old male is found in his bedroom by his mother. Assessment reveals: unresponsive to all stimuli (voice, touch, pain), respiratory rate 8 with shallow tidal volume, pulse 52, blood pressure 88/54, skin pale and cool, and pupils 2mm and reactive. His mother reports he has been depressed recently and she found an empty bottle of “nerve pills” on his nightstand. Based on the primary assessment findings, what is the MOST likely cause of his presentation, and what is your immediate management priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In any suspected overdose with respiratory depression, airway and breathing come first. Naloxone reverses opioids, but it doesn’t reverse hypoxia. BVM first, naloxone second.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
72. When assessing blood pressure in an adult patient, the Korotkoff sounds during auscultation represent which physiological event?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The first Korotkoff sound (Phase I) = systolic BP; the disappearance of sounds (Phase V) = diastolic BP in adults.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
73. A 72-year-old male with a history of severe COPD presents with increasing shortness of breath. His SpO2 is 88% on room air. He appears anxious and is using accessory muscles. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate oxygen administration strategy?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In COPD, never withhold oxygen from a hypoxic patient – start low (2 LPM), titrate to SpO2 88-92%, and monitor mental status and respiratory effort.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
74. You are dispatched to an industrial warehouse for a reported chemical spill with multiple patients experiencing respiratory distress. Upon arrival, you observe several workers coughing and holding their throats near a cloud of unknown vapor. What is your most appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unknown chemical + respiratory symptoms = HazMat call, not hero call.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
75. During a secondary assessment of an unconscious patient, the EMT notes that the pupils are unequal in size. The right pupil is 4mm and reactive to light; the left pupil is 6mm and fixed (non-reactive). This finding MOST strongly suggests:
CorrectIncorrectHint
One dilated, fixed pupil = unilateral brain injury or increased ICP. This is a neurosurgical emergency requiring rapid transport.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
76. You respond to a residence where a 58-year-old male is complaining of “not feeling well” for the past two days. On your general impression, you note he appears ill, is diaphoretic, and is sitting in a tripod position. His wife states he has a history of diabetes and “heart problems.” When you ask him what’s wrong, he responds with one-word answers in a soft voice. Analyze this general impression and determine which combination of findings most strongly suggests a high-priority condition requiring immediate intervention.
CorrectIncorrectHint
A patient who can’t speak in full sentences is telling you they can’t breathe well enough—listen to their silence.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
77. A 55-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with sudden onset of severe back pain that radiates to her abdomen. She describes it as “tearing” pain. Her blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in her right arm and 145/95 mmHg in her left arm. Her pulses are asymmetric, with a diminished femoral pulse on the left side. What is the MOST concerning possible diagnosis, and how does it explain the findings?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Tearing pain, pulse and pressure gaps = dissection” – asymmetric blood pressures (>20 mmHg difference between arms) and pulses with tearing back pain is a dissection until proven otherwise.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
78. A 67-year-old male reports crushing substernal chest pain. When asked if the pain spreads anywhere, he points to his left arm and jaw. This radiation pattern is MOST consistent with which condition?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Left arm + jaw radiation with chest pressure = think cardiac. Time is muscle – 12-lead ECG and transport.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
79. After caring for a patient with suspected COVID-19, you are removing your PPE. Which of the following represents the correct sequence for doffing your equipment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Doff in order: gloves → gown → hand hygiene → face items → hand hygiene again; the cleaner items (face) come off after dirty items AND hand hygiene.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
80. Which behavior BEST demonstrates professional conduct by an EMT at the scene of an emergency?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Professionalism = confidentiality + competence + compassion + character. What happens on the call stays on the call.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
81. A 22-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle crash. He has an open femur fracture on his right leg with active bleeding, a deformed left wrist, and abrasions on his face. He is awake but anxious. His vital signs are BP 100/70, HR 118, RR 24. Which intervention should be prioritized first?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ABCs first: Airway with cervical spine protection, then breathing, then circulation (and bleeding control).
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
82. You respond to a 22-year-old male with a deep laceration to his forearm from broken glass. Bright red blood is spurting from the wound. During your primary assessment, you note his skin is pale and diaphoretic, with a heart rate of 112. What is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Arterial bleeding (bright red, spurting) = tourniquet immediately. Don’t waste time with lesser interventions when you see spurting blood.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
83. You respond to an industrial warehouse for an unresponsive worker. Upon arrival, you observe an overturned chemical drum with a diamond-shaped placard showing the number 3 in a red quadrant. A strong chemical odor is present, and you notice a visible vapor near the floor. Several employees are attempting to drag the patient toward the exit. What is your MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
HazMat scenes: Stage upwind, call HazMat, deny entry. The placard number 3 in red indicates a flammable liquid – both toxic and fire hazard. Never enter without proper training and PPE.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
84. You respond to a residential structure fire where firefighters are actively working to extinguish flames. Command reports that one occupant was rescued from a second-floor bedroom. The patient is a 58-year-old female with singed nasal hairs, carbonaceous sputum, and facial burns. She is coughing and reports hoarseness. Which resource should you request immediately in addition to routine ALS transport?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Singed nasal hairs and hoarseness after a fire = impending airway compromise. Intubate early or lose the airway.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
85. During a mass casualty incident, you are triaging patients. You encounter a 28-year-old male with an open femur fracture and bright red blood spurting from the wound. He is conscious and follows commands. His radial pulse is present but rapid and weak. How should this patient be categorized?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In triage, uncontrolled arterial bleeding immediately categorizes a patient as Red (Immediate) regardless of mental status.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
86. When communicating with the receiving hospital, you should provide all of the following information EXCEPT:
CorrectIncorrectHint
Radio reports: Facts, not opinions. Who, what, findings, treatment, response. Keep it objective. “Patient reports chest pain” not “Patient seems dramatic.”
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
87. Your unit arrives at the scene of a reported assault. You see police vehicles but no officers are visible outside. A man is lying motionless on the ground near an open doorway. What is your most appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Stage until safe” – never enter a violent scene until law enforcement confirms it’s secure.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
88. A 54-year-old female with a history of diabetes is found unresponsive in her bedroom. Her skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. Her pulse is rapid and thready. What is the MOST likely cause of her presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoglycemia = cold and clammy (diaphoretic, pale, cool skin); Hyperglycemia = warm and dry (dry skin, fruity breath, dehydration signs).
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
89. Which of the following is the most common atypical presentation of acute myocardial infarction in geriatric patients?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric patients, assume “confusion = cardiac” until proven otherwise – altered mental status may be the only sign of a life-threatening MI.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
90. You respond to a two-vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find two patients. Patient A is a 45-year-old driver of the first vehicle, ambulatory at the scene, with a small laceration on his forehead. Patient B is the driver of the second vehicle, still seated behind the wheel, holding her chest and complaining of difficulty breathing. Her skin is pale and diaphoretic. Which patient should be assessed FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Walking patients are usually stable. Focus on those who cannot or do not walk away from the scene.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
91. A 52-year-old female is found unresponsive in her home. During your primary assessment, you note she has snoring respirations at 8 breaths per minute. Her chest rise is minimally visible. What is your FIRST action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Snoring = tongue obstruction. Head-tilt, chin-lift first. If no improvement, consider airway adjuncts.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
92. Dispatch sends you to a 55-year-old male with chest pain at a construction site. Upon arrival, workers direct you to a man lying at the bottom of a 12-foot excavation trench. He is clutching his chest and appears diaphoretic. One worker mentions the patient was complaining of chest pain before climbing down to check a pipe. Analyze the situation and determine the most appropriate response.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Trenches are confined spaces that kill rescuers – always call for technical rescue and never enter without proper shoring and atmospheric monitoring.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
93. You respond to a residence for a 16-year-old female with abdominal pain. She tells you privately that she is pregnant but begs you not to tell her parents, who are unaware. Her parents arrive on scene and demand to know what is wrong with their daughter. She is alert, oriented, and otherwise stable. What is your BEST course of action regarding disclosure and documentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Minor patients may have confidentiality rights for pregnancy, STIs, and substance abuse in many states. Know your local laws and respect patient privacy within legal bounds.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
94. After treating a patient with active tuberculosis, an EMT must remove their PPE. Which action demonstrates proper doffing technique?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Gloves off first, mask off last” – strip from outside in, protect your face until the end.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
95. You are treating two diabetic patients simultaneously. Patient A has blood glucose of 52 mg/dL with cool, clammy skin and confusion that developed over 30 minutes. Patient B has blood glucose of 425 mg/dL with warm, dry skin, Kussmaul respirations, and confusion that developed over 2 days. Based on the pathophysiology of each condition, which statement BEST explains the difference in their skin presentations?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoglycemia = sympathetic surge = cool/clammy. Hyperglycemia = dehydration = warm/dry. Let skin guide your diagnosis!
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
96. Which piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) should be donned FIRST when preparing for patient contact with potential bloodborne pathogen exposure?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Gown first, gloves last” – the gown is your base layer; gloves are your outer layer and first line of removal.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
97. What does the “P” represent in the AVPU scale used during the primary assessment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
AVPU = Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive – a rapid LOC assessment done in under 10 seconds during primary assessment.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
98. A 67-year-old female presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing. During your primary assessment, you note her skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. Her radial pulse is weak and rapid at 118 beats per minute. She is alert but anxious. What is your primary assessment interpretation of her circulatory status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chest pain + cool/pale/diaphoretic + weak rapid pulse = cardiogenic shock until proven otherwise. Time is muscle.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
99. You are assessing a 45-year-old male who is unresponsive. He has snoring respirations and his airway appears partially obstructed by his tongue. He does not gag when you insert an OPA. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
No gag reflex = OPA is appropriate. If they gag, remove it and consider an NPA.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
100. You respond to a homeless shelter for a patient with a chronic cough who reports night sweats and unintentional weight loss over the past month. He has never been tested for tuberculosis. Several other shelter residents are nearby, and one staff member is trying to help the patient stand. The scene is indoors with limited ventilation. Analyze the situation and identify the MOST appropriate immediate action.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Night sweats + weight loss + chronic cough = think TB. Protect yourself with N95 first, then mask the patient.
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