Get ready to assess your readiness for the NREMT exam with our Full Practice Test 3! This comprehensive assessment mirrors the actual certification exam, featuring 100 questions across all five NREMT domains to help you identify strengths and areas for improvement.
This test covers:
– Scene Size-Up (~17 questions) – Assessing the scene and ensuring safety.
– Primary Assessment (~42 questions) – Focused on immediate life threats.
– Secondary Assessment (~7 questions) – Detailed history and physical exam.
– Patient Treatment (~22 questions) – Interventions and protocols.
– Operations (~12 questions) – EMS operations and professionalism.
Pro Tips for Success:
1. Time management – Pace yourself to avoid rushing.
2. Review weak areas – Use incorrect answers to guide further study.
Quiz Summary
0 of 100 Questions completed
Questions:
Information
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading…
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You must first complete the following:
Results
Results
0 of 100 Questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 point(s), (0)
Earned Point(s): 0 of 0, (0)
0 Essay(s) Pending (Possible Point(s): 0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Documentation 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > EMS Systems 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Ethics 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Incident Command 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Medical/Legal Issues 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Radio Communication 0%
- Operations (10-14% of exam) > Vehicle Operations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Allergic Reactions 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Behavioral Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Cardiac Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport (20-24% of exam) > Pharmacology 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Airway Management 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Airway Management – Rescue Breathing 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Diabetic Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Epinephrine 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatrics – Hypothermia 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Geriatrics – Polypharmacy 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Medical Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pediatric Emergencies 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Pharmacology – Medication Administration 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Respiratory – Asthma 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Special Populations 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Spinal – Neurogenic Shock 0%
- Patient Treatment & Transport > Trauma – Musculoskeletal 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Airway Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Circulation Assessment 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Level of Consciousness (LOC) 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > LOC & Airway Integration 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Determination 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Priority Patients 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Resuscitation 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Scene Size-Up 0%
- Primary Assessment (39-43% of exam) > Transport Decision 0%
- Primary Assessment > Circulation 0%
- Primary Assessment > General Impression 0%
- Primary Assessment > Identification of Priority Patients 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Resource Utilization 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety (15-19% of exam) > Standard Precautions 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Airway & Breathing 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > MOI/NOI 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Scene Safety 0%
- Scene Size-Up & Safety > Standard Precautions 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > Head-to-Toe Examination 0%
- Secondary Assessment (5-9% of exam) > SAMPLE History 0%
- Secondary Assessment > History Taking 0%
- Secondary Assessment > OPQRST 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Physical Exam 0%
- Secondary Assessment > SAMPLE History 0%
- Secondary Assessment > Vital Signs 0%
-
YOU FAILED!
You weren’t even close… Carry on! Take the test again!
-
You are Genius!
You nailed it! Take the next test.
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- 36
- 37
- 38
- 39
- 40
- 41
- 42
- 43
- 44
- 45
- 46
- 47
- 48
- 49
- 50
- 51
- 52
- 53
- 54
- 55
- 56
- 57
- 58
- 59
- 60
- 61
- 62
- 63
- 64
- 65
- 66
- 67
- 68
- 69
- 70
- 71
- 72
- 73
- 74
- 75
- 76
- 77
- 78
- 79
- 80
- 81
- 82
- 83
- 84
- 85
- 86
- 87
- 88
- 89
- 90
- 91
- 92
- 93
- 94
- 95
- 96
- 97
- 98
- 99
- 100
- Current
- Review
- Answered
- Correct
- Incorrect
-
Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1. You respond to a possible overdose. The patient is found with a needle nearby. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Needles on scene? Watch your step. Use PPE, don’t reach blindly. Sharps containers, needle sticks are serious. Scene safety always first.
-
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
2. Which mechanism of injury (MOI) automatically indicates the need for full spinal immobilization and trauma center transport?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Ejection = automatic trauma center – the body traveled at vehicle speed before impact.
-
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
3. When ventilating an apneic adult patient with a bag-valve mask, what is the appropriate ventilation rate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult BVM ventilation: 12-20 breaths/minute (one breath every 3-5 seconds) – squeeze, release, watch for chest rise.
-
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
4. A 54-year-old diabetic male is found confused and combative. Family states he took his usual insulin this morning but then “didn’t eat much breakfast.” His skin is cool and diaphoretic. What is the most likely cause of his altered mental status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In diabetic patients with altered mental status, always assume hypoglycemia until proven otherwise – “When in doubt, give sugar” (if able to swallow or via IV/IM route).
-
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
5. You are caring for a patient who becomes combative and refuses transport. Despite your efforts, he signs the refusal form. What should you document?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Refusal documentation: Mental status, risks explained (death, disability), patient understanding, alternatives offered, attempts to persuade, signature, witness, medical direction contact if possible.
-
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
6. You are called to an industrial site for a worker who collapsed. Upon arrival, a supervisor reports the patient collapsed near a chemical storage area and there is a strong odor in the air. Several other workers are complaining of headache and nausea. What is your FIRST action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Multiple victims + chemical odor = HazMat – don’t become the next patient.
-
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
7. An EMT arrives on scene to find a 22-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. The patient is walking around the scene, talking on his cell phone, and states he feels “fine.” The vehicle has significant front-end damage, and the airbag deployed. What is the most appropriate initial action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adrenaline can mask fatal injuries. A walking, talking trauma patient with significant MOI is still a trauma patient until proven otherwise.
-
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
8. When obtaining the “E” component of a SAMPLE history, the EMT asks, “What were you doing when the symptoms started?” What additional information should also be gathered for the “E” component?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Events” is about the story – what was happening before and during symptom onset. Think: context, triggers, and circumstances.
-
Question 9 of 100
9. Question
9. During assessment of a patient with difficulty breathing, the EMT notes that the patient is using accessory muscles to breathe, has intercostal retractions, and is sitting upright leaning forward on his hands. These findings indicate:
CorrectIncorrectHint
Accessory muscle use + retractions + tripod position = severe respiratory distress. Prepare for possible respiratory failure and rapid deterioration.
-
Question 10 of 100
10. Question
10. You respond to a call for an “unresponsive person” in a public park. You find a person lying on a bench. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive person in public? Scene safety first. Drugs? Violence? Hazards? Look around before you approach. Check for safety, then check for response.
-
Question 11 of 100
11. Question
11. A 29-year-old male with type 1 diabetes calls for help because he feels “shaky and weak.” His blood glucose is 62 mg/dL. He is alert, oriented, and able to swallow. After administering one tube of oral glucose, his symptoms persist and repeat glucose is 58 mg/dL. What should you do NEXT?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoglycemia persisting after first dose? Give another! Up to 3 doses if needed in a conscious, swallowing patient.
-
Question 12 of 100
12. Question
12. You are assessing a 5-year-old child who fell from a playground structure. The child is crying loudly, reaching for a parent, and has a visible deformity to the left forearm. Based on your general impression, what is the most accurate statement about this child’s status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A crying child with purposeful movement is giving you valuable information—their ABCs are currently intact.
-
Question 13 of 100
13. Question
13. A 32-year-old male fell 20 feet from a ladder and is now complaining of weakness in both legs and inability to move them. His vital signs are: BP 84/50 mmHg, HR 58/min, RR 18/min. His skin is warm and dry. Which type of shock should you suspect, and what is the underlying mechanism?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Trauma with hypotension + bradycardia + warm dry skin = neurogenic shock until proven otherwise. The heart can’t speed up because sympathetic signals are cut off.
-
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
14. A 23-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by friends who state she was “acting strange” at a concert. On assessment, she does not respond to her name being called loudly. When you apply a painful stimulus to her trapezius, she pulls away and says “stop it.” Her pupils are equal and reactive. Blood glucose is 95 mg/dL. What is her AVPU status, and based on the presentation, what is the MOST likely cause of her altered mental status?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Post-ictal patients often present with altered LOC, normal glucose, and normal pupils. The “acting strange” before unresponsiveness is a classic seizure history. Recovery can take minutes to hours.
-
Question 15 of 100
15. Question
15. A 22-year-old female is found unconscious in her college dorm room. Her roommate states the patient is diabetic and has been “acting weird” for the past hour. Blood glucose is 38 mg/dL. The patient has a weak gag reflex but makes occasional groaning sounds. What is the MOST appropriate medication intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Oral glucose is ONLY for patients who can swallow safely – when in doubt about airway protection, withhold oral glucose and transport for IV dextrose.
-
Question 16 of 100
16. Question
16. A 6-month-old infant presents with increased work of breathing. You observe nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and an expiratory wheeze. The infant’s respiratory rate is 52 breaths/min. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Infants in respiratory distress often maintain good effort—support with oxygen before jumping to assisted ventilation.
-
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
17. You respond to a vehicle collision on a highway. As you arrive, you notice an overturned tanker truck with a placard displaying the number 3072. Multiple patients are lying on the ground near the vehicle. What is your FIRST action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Placard first, patients second” – identify hazards and secure the scene before providing care.
-
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
18. You arrive at a two-vehicle collision on a rural highway. After initial scene size-up, you identify four patients: one critical (unresponsive, severe bleeding), two moderate (ambulatory with apparent fractures), and one minor (refusing care, minor scrapes). There are only two EMTs in your ambulance. What is your most appropriate resource utilization decision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When patient count exceeds your capacity, MCI isn’t optional—it’s your duty to activate it.
-
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
19. While treating a trauma patient with a deep laceration to the thigh, the EMT notices arterial bleeding that is spurting with each heartbeat. Which PPE should the EMT don before applying direct pressure?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Arterial spurting = splash risk = protect your face and body, not just your hands.
-
Question 20 of 100
20. Question
20. A patient fell from a third-story window (approximately 30 feet) onto a grass lawn. Which statement best explains why this mechanism requires a comprehensive trauma assessment even though the patient is currently awake and talking?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Looks fine, fell from height” = the most dangerous patient in the room – assess everything, trust nothing.
-
Question 21 of 100
21. Question
21. A 68-year-old male has a weak radial pulse. What should you do to further assess his circulation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Weak radial pulse? Check central (carotid/femoral). Strong central + weak peripheral = shock. Absent central = severe shock or arrest.
-
Question 22 of 100
22. Question
22. A 28-year-old female was ejected from a vehicle during a rollover collision. On your arrival, she is alert but confused, speaking in short phrases with visible blood in her mouth. Her GCS is 12 (E3, V3, M6). Breath sounds are present bilaterally but you hear gurgling with each respiration. Her SpO2 is 90% on room air. After initiating spinal motion restriction, what is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When you hear gurgling, think “suction first” – clear the obstruction before considering other airway interventions or oxygen therapy.
-
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
23. You arrive to find three patients. Patient A is screaming with a leg deformity. Patient B is unresponsive with snoring respirations. Patient C has a bleeding arm laceration. Which patient do you assess first?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive + snoring = airway obstruction. This is your first patient. Screaming patient is breathing. Bleeding is next. ABCs = Airway first, always.
-
Question 24 of 100
24. Question
24. A 35-year-old male is experiencing anaphylaxis after a bee sting. He is conscious but has severe respiratory distress with audible wheezing, facial swelling, and a blood pressure of 86/54 mmHg. He has his own epinephrine auto-injector but is too weak to use it. What is the correct dose and administration technique?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult auto-injector = 0.3 mg; pediatric auto-injector = 0.15 mg. Always inject into the lateral thigh and hold for the manufacturer’s recommended time.
-
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
25. You respond to a residence for a “person not feeling well.” Upon entering, you observe a 58-year-old male slumped in a chair, appearing drowsy. His wife states he has been “acting strange” for the past hour. As you approach, you note his breathing appears labored with visible use of accessory muscles, his skin has a bluish tint around the lips, and he responds only to verbal stimulus with confused speech. Analyze this general impression and determine your immediate priority.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cyanosis + altered mental status + respiratory distress = immediate airway/breathing emergency. Assess and act fast.
-
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
26. You respond to a “sick person” call at a residence. A 68-year-old female is lying in bed. She appears thin, pale, and diaphoretic. Her daughter states, “She’s been tired all week and said she felt dizzy this morning, then wouldn’t wake up from her nap.” The patient responds to painful stimuli with decorticate posturing. Her skin is cool and clammy. Based on the general impression and clinical presentation, which pattern BEST represents the likely underlying process?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In elderly patients, “just tired and weak” for days can be sepsis in disguise. Pale, diaphoretic, altered = septic shock until proven otherwise.
-
Question 27 of 100
27. Question
27. You are called to assist a 44-year-old female experiencing an allergic reaction after eating shellfish. She is alert but anxious, with diffuse hives and mild facial swelling. She has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector (0.3 mg). After contacting medical direction, you are authorized to assist. Which statement correctly describes the proper administration technique?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Thigh to thigh” – the anterolateral thigh is the gold standard for epinephrine auto-injector placement. Blue to the sky, orange to the thigh, hold for 10 seconds.
-
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
28. You respond to a nursing home for a 78-year-old female with altered mental status. Staff report she was found unresponsive in her room this morning. Her past medical history includes diabetes, hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and a previous stroke with right-sided weakness. During your assessment, you note the following: She does not respond to her name or loud verbal stimuli. When you apply a painful stimulus to her fingernail bed, she does not respond. Her respirations are irregular, with periods of apnea lasting 10-15 seconds. Her blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg. Her pupils are 4mm and sluggishly reactive. Blood glucose is 142 mg/dL. What does her presentation suggest, and what is your immediate concern?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive + irregular breathing + elevated BP + sluggish pupils = herniation until proven otherwise. Airway is the immediate priority.
-
Question 29 of 100
29. Question
29. EMS is dispatched to a 52-year-old male with chest pain. On arrival, the patient is sitting upright in a chair, clutching his chest, with pale, diaphoretic skin. He is able to speak in short sentences but appears anxious. His wife reports he took nitroglycerin 10 minutes ago with no relief. What is the most accurate general impression and immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chest pain + pale/diaphoretic + nitro failure = “sick” patient; think STEMI until proven otherwise, get that 12-lead early.
-
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
30. You are treating an unresponsive 72-year-old male found by family members at home. Family states he has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and “some kind of heart problem.” They do not know his medications. His blood glucose is 42 mg/dL. After administering oral glucose, his mental status improves, and he becomes oriented. When documenting this call, which information is MOST critical to include in your patient care report?
CorrectIncorrectHint
PCR priorities: What you found, What you did, How the patient responded. These three elements prove you provided appropriate care.
-
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
31. A 24-year-old male was stabbed in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. During your primary assessment, he is alert but anxious. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. His heart rate is 124 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg. What stage of shock is this patient most likely experiencing?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Never wait for hypotension to identify shock. Tachycardia + abnormal skin = compensated shock even with normal BP.
-
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
32. An EMT arrives on scene to find a 34-year-old male sitting on the curb after a bicycle accident. He is holding his arm, speaking clearly, and appears anxious but is tracking the EMT’s movements. How would the EMT classify this patient’s general impression?
CorrectIncorrectHint
General impression is your “gut check” in 5-10 seconds: sick patients look sick – pale, diaphoretic, anxious, altered – trust your eyes.
-
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
33. A patient with chest pain has a blood pressure of 90/60, is diaphoretic, and has crushing pain radiating to the left arm. What is the appropriate transport decision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ACS + hypotension + diaphoresis = cardiogenic shock possible. Emergency transport to cardiac center. Time is muscle. Monitor, oxygen, aspirin, nitro if BP allows.
-
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
34. A 28-year-old female is experiencing a panic attack with rapid breathing, chest tightness, and numbness in her hands. She is alert but extremely anxious. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hyperventilation syndrome: Rapid breathing → CO2 drops → Respiratory alkalosis → Numbness/tingling. Coach slow breathing (in through nose, out through mouth), rule out medical causes.
-
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
35. You respond to a construction site where a 42-year-old male fell 15 feet and landed on his left side on concrete. Bystanders state he initially complained of severe left abdominal pain but now says he “feels fine.” During your primary assessment, you note: he is alert and oriented, skin is pale but warm, heart rate 112, BP 118/76, respiratory rate 22. He has bruising over his left flank and reports mild left shoulder pain. He wants to refuse transport. What is your clinical interpretation and most appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Left flank trauma + left shoulder pain (Kehr’s sign) = splenic injury until proven otherwise. This classic finding can appear before hypotension develops.
-
Question 36 of 100
36. Question
36. When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient who speaks limited English, which approach is MOST appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Simple words + gestures + patience = better communication. “Heart medicine” instead of “cardiac medication,” point to body parts, use “yes/no” questions when possible.
-
Question 37 of 100
37. Question
37. You are called to a local park for a 42-year-old man who was stung by multiple wasps. On arrival, you find him sitting on a bench, appearing anxious. He has diffuse hives on his arms and trunk, his face appears swollen, and he states his “throat feels tight.” He has audible stridor when breathing. His blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, pulse is 118 bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min with labored effort. The patient’s wife states he has a history of severe allergic reactions and hands you an epinephrine auto-injector from his emergency kit. After administering the epinephrine, what should you do immediately?
CorrectIncorrectHint
After epinephrine: massage the site, reassess ABCs, and get moving – anaphylaxis isn’t over until you’re at the ED.
-
Question 38 of 100
38. Question
38. A 4-year-old child is brought to you by his frantic mother. The child is sitting upright, leaning slightly forward, drooling, and has a muffled voice. He appears anxious and is not crying. His skin is pale. What is your priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Drooling + tripod + muffled voice + silent child = epiglottitis. Don’t touch, don’t lay flat, don’t agitate. Just transport.
-
Question 39 of 100
39. Question
39. A 22-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. When you arrive, he is unresponsive to your voice. You apply a painful sternal rub and he extends his arms and legs outward with his head arched back. What is his AVPU status, and what condition does this motor response suggest?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Decerebrate (extension) is worse than decorticate (flexion) – think “extreme for external (decerebrate)” as the more severe finding.
-
Question 40 of 100
40. Question
40. You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe nosebleed. Upon arrival, you find the patient actively bleeding with bright red blood dripping from both nostrils. The patient is leaning forward, and blood is pooling on the floor. Which PPE combination is MOST appropriate for this call?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Severe bleeding + splatter risk = gown up! Eye protection and gown protect you when blood is pooling and dripping.
-
Question 41 of 100
41. Question
41. You arrive at a motor vehicle collision involving a single vehicle that struck a utility pole. The driver, a 28-year-old female, is out of the vehicle and walking around. She appears alert and tells you she is “fine” and just wants to go home. You notice a small bruise on her forehead and torn clothing. What should your general impression tell you about this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Walking and talking” after trauma does not mean “no injury.” Adrenaline can mask serious problems for 15-30 minutes or longer.
-
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
42. A 22-year-old male was stung by a wasp 10 minutes ago. He now has diffuse hives, swelling of his lips and tongue, difficulty breathing with wheezing, and a blood pressure of 84/52. What is the MOST appropriate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Anaphylaxis = epinephrine FIRST. Signs include: airway swelling, respiratory distress, hypotension, diffuse hives. Epi auto-injector: 0.3 mg IM for adults, 0.15 mg for children.
-
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
43. Under the Incident Command System (ICS), which position is responsible for overall management of the incident?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Incident Commander = “The Boss.” Sets objectives, priorities, and strategy. All other sections (Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Admin) report to IC.
-
Question 44 of 100
44. Question
44. During a primary assessment, you palpate a weak, thready radial pulse in a 45-year-old trauma patient. The patient is alert but appears anxious. What does this finding indicate, and what is your immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Weak and thready pulse = think shock = find the bleed.
-
Question 45 of 100
45. Question
45. A 16-year-old female is in active labor. Her parents are not present. Can she legally consent to treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Minors can often consent to: pregnancy care, STI treatment, substance abuse counseling, and mental health treatment (varies by state). Emergency care = implied consent applies.
-
Question 46 of 100
46. Question
46. Dispatch sends you to a reported structure fire with possible entrapment. As you approach, you see heavy smoke and flames coming from a two-story home. A neighbor reports two people may still be inside. Fire department has a 15-minute ETA. What is your BEST course of action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Active structure fire = fire department’s scene – stage safely and prepare to treat.
-
Question 47 of 100
47. Question
47. You are treating a 40-year-old female who fell and has an obvious deformity to her right lower leg. The foot is pale, and she reports numbness and tingling in her toes. Capillary refill is greater than 3 seconds, and she has weak pulses distal to the injury. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Fracture with pulseless, pale, numb extremity = realign first, then splint. You have a limited window to save the limb before irreversible damage occurs.
-
Question 48 of 100
48. Question
48. You are called to a residence for a 78-year-old woman with altered mental status. Her husband reports she has been confused and lethargic for the past day. She has a history of heart failure, diabetes, and chronic kidney disease. Her medications include furosemide, metformin, and lisinopril. On assessment, you note dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and orthostatic hypotension. Her blood glucose is 58 mg/dL. Which of the following is the MOST critical underlying condition requiring immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In elderly patients, polypharmacy plus chronic disease creates a perfect storm—always check glucose and assess hydration status in altered mental status.
-
Question 49 of 100
49. Question
49. A 19-year-old male was found unresponsive at a party. Friends report he was drinking alcohol and may have taken unknown pills. His eyes open when you apply a trapezius squeeze, he mutters incomprehensible sounds, and he pulls away from the painful stimulus. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, what is his motor score?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS motor scoring: 6=obeys commands, 5=localizes pain, 4=withdraws from pain, 3=flexion (decorticate), 2=extension (decerebrate), 1=none.
-
Question 50 of 100
50. Question
50. You are dispatched to a multi-vehicle collision on the highway. Upon arrival, you identify the following patients: Patient A is a 35-year-old male walking around asking for help with his bleeding nose. Patient B is a 28-year-old female sitting on the ground, holding her chest and breathing rapidly. Patient C is a 40-year-old male lying motionless in the back seat of one vehicle. Which patient should be your highest priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In triage, the “silent” patient is often the sickest—unresponsiveness trumps visible distress.
-
Question 51 of 100
51. Question
51. You are completing care for a patient with profuse vomiting when you notice a small tear in your glove on your dominant hand. Your hand appears dry underneath with no visible contamination. What is your most appropriate immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Torn glove = broken barrier. Hand hygiene BEFORE new gloves, not after.
-
Question 52 of 100
52. Question
52. A 78-year-old female fell in her bathroom and has a 3 cm laceration on her forehead. Her daughter states she takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which pathophysiologic mechanism most significantly increases this patient’s risk of serious injury?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Any geriatric patient on anticoagulants with head trauma gets a thorough assessment and transport recommendation – even with a “minor” mechanism, the bleeding risk is significant.
-
Question 53 of 100
53. Question
53. You respond to a 28-year-old female at 36 weeks gestation who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. She was a restrained driver in a moderate-speed collision. During your primary assessment, she is alert and oriented, complaining of abdominal pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are: BP 92/60 mmHg, heart rate 108, respiratory rate 20. Her skin is warm and pink. She reports feeling the baby move normally. Based on these findings, what is your assessment of her circulatory status and priority level?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pregnant trauma + abdominal pain + vaginal bleeding = placental abruption until proven otherwise. Two patients are at risk—mother may compensate while fetus is in distress.
-
Question 54 of 100
54. Question
54. You respond to a two-vehicle collision on a four-lane highway. Both vehicles are in the left lane, and traffic is passing on the right at highway speeds. There are no apparent hazards such as fire or fluid leaks. What is your FIRST priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Highway calls mean traffic threats – position your ambulance as a shield and call for traffic control before touching patients.
-
Question 55 of 100
55. Question
55. You are called to a residence for a 4-year-old child who is choking. Upon arrival, the mother reports the child was eating grapes when she started coughing and gagging. The child is conscious, crying, and coughing forcefully. You hear stridor-like sounds between coughs. Her color is pink. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Conscious + coughing + pink = partial obstruction = encourage coughing and monitor. Intervene only if cough becomes ineffective or the patient loses consciousness.
-
Question 56 of 100
56. Question
56. A 62-year-old male presents with sudden-onset, severe chest pain that began 20 minutes ago while watching television. He describes it as “crushing pressure” and rates it 9/10. The pain radiates to his left arm and jaw. He took one nitroglycerin tablet five minutes ago with no relief. He has a history of hypertension and high cholesterol, takes aspirin daily, and smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Based on the OPQRST and SAMPLE findings, which assessment finding is MOST concerning and suggests acute myocardial infarction rather than stable angina?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Angina that doesn’t respond to nitroglycerin = unstable angina or acute MI. Time is heart muscle – aspirin, oxygen if needed, 12-lead, rapid transport.
-
Question 57 of 100
57. Question
57. An EMT responds to a 55-year-old male with shortness of breath. Upon entering the room, the patient is sitting upright in bed, using accessory muscles to breathe, and appears anxious. His skin is pale and diaphoretic. What general impression should the EMT form, and what is the immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tripod positioning + accessory muscles + pale/diaphoretic = respiratory emergency. These patients need oxygen, positioning, and rapid transport.
-
Question 58 of 100
58. Question
58. A 4-year-old child is unresponsive. You need to assess circulation. Which pulse should you check?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pediatric pulse check: Infants = brachial (inside upper arm). Children = brachial or femoral. Adults = carotid. Check for up to 10 seconds.
-
Question 59 of 100
59. Question
59. A 45-year-old male was found unconscious at the bottom of a staircase. He has snoring respirations at 16 breaths per minute. What is the most appropriate initial airway intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Snoring = tongue, trauma = jaw thrust” – snoring respirations suggest the tongue is blocking the airway, and in trauma, always protect the spine.
-
Question 60 of 100
60. Question
60. A 56-year-old male is unresponsive with sonorous respirations. What should you do FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Sonorous = snoring = tongue obstruction. Head-tilt, chin-lift first. If no trauma, open the airway manually before adjuncts.
-
Question 61 of 100
61. Question
61. During a winter response, you find a 79-year-old male in his unheated apartment. He is confused, shivering, and has cold, pale skin. His core temperature reads 90°F (32.2°C). His blood pressure is 102/64 mmHg, pulse is 56/min and irregular, and respirations are 12/min. Which intervention should you perform FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In hypothermia, “no one is dead until warm and dead” – but handle gently! Rough handling can trigger fatal arrhythmias in cold hearts.
-
Question 62 of 100
62. Question
62. Which documentation principle states that if an intervention or assessment was not documented, it is legally considered not to have been performed?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Your PCR is your legal shield. No documentation = no proof it happened. Document thoroughly, accurately, and contemporaneously.
-
Question 63 of 100
63. Question
63. You respond to a 45-year-old male with chest pain. Upon entering the room, you observe him clutching his chest, sitting upright, with ashen gray skin. He is diaphoretic and speaks only in two-word sentences. What is your general impression and immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Ashen gray skin + diaphoresis + chest pain + two-word sentences = “sick” patient with likely cardiogenic shock. Oxygen and rapid transport are essential.
-
Question 64 of 100
64. Question
64. You administered oxygen to a hypoxic patient. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way to document this intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Document interventions: What + How + Response. “Oxygen via NRB 15 LPM, SpO2 88%→96%.” Show the intervention and show it worked.
-
Question 65 of 100
65. Question
65. What is the primary difference between an EMT and an AEMT (Advanced EMT) in terms of scope of practice?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Think of the levels as steps: EMR = life-saving basics, EMT = BLS foundation, AEMT = BLS + some ALS, Paramedic = full ALS.
-
Question 66 of 100
66. Question
66. A 4-year-old child is brought to you by a panicked parent. The child has had a fever for two days and today became lethargic. On your general impression, the child is lying on the parent’s shoulder, not resisting, with rapid breathing and mottled skin. The child briefly opens eyes when you speak but does not track you. What is your impression and immediate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The lethargic child with fever, mottled skin, and rapid breathing is in septic shock—every minute counts, and children can decompensate rapidly from compensated shock.
-
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
67. While en route to the hospital with a 67-year-old male experiencing chest pain, you need to provide a radio report. The patient has a history of hypertension and diabetes, currently reports 8/10 substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm, and you’ve administered aspirin and nitroglycerin with mild improvement. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate radio transmission?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A complete radio report answers: Who am I, who’s the patient, what’s wrong, what did I find, what did I do, how did it work, when do I arrive?
-
Question 68 of 100
68. Question
68. During your rapid assessment of a patient, you form a general impression within the first few seconds. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this initial general impression?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Think “sick or not sick” in the first 30 seconds – your general impression drives everything that follows.
-
Question 69 of 100
69. Question
69. You respond to a motor vehicle collision involving three patients. Patient A is ambulatory with minor lacerations and is coughing. Patient B is trapped in the vehicle with an open leg fracture and is screaming in pain. Patient C was ejected and is unresponsive with visible head trauma and labored breathing. You have limited initial PPE supplies in your jump bag. Analyze the situation and determine which PPE prioritization strategy best balances scene safety and patient care needs.
CorrectIncorrectHint
Multi-patient triage PPE: match protection to each patient’s risks (droplet vs. aerosol-generating vs. contact) and prioritize the sickest patient while managing transmission risks.
-
Question 70 of 100
70. Question
70. You are treating a 62-year-old male who fell 15 feet from a ladder. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. His breathing is labored with sonorous respirations at 8 breaths per minute. You note significant bruising to the right side of his head and deformity to his right arm. His SpO2 is 88% on room air. After opening his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver, his breathing improves slightly but remains inadequate. What is the MOST appropriate sequence of interventions?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive trauma patient + inadequate breathing = suction → airway adjunct → BVM ventilation, all while maintaining spinal precautions.
-
Question 71 of 100
71. Question
71. Which of the following is the correct technique for obtaining an accurate radial pulse in an adult patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Use your fingertips (not thumb) to palpate. Irregular pulse = count for 60 seconds. Also note pulse quality (weak, thready, strong, bounding).
-
Question 72 of 100
72. Question
72. A 76-year-old female presents with dizziness and a syncopal episode. She reports taking multiple medications for “her heart, blood pressure, and water retention.” Her vital signs are: BP 92/58 mmHg, HR 54/min, RR 16/min, SpO2 96%. She appears pale but is alert. Which medication combination is most likely contributing to her presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Polypharmacy in geriatric patients often causes “prescribing cascades” – always review medications when evaluating syncope, falls, or altered mental status.
-
Question 73 of 100
73. Question
73. You are dispatched to a fall at a construction site. A worker fell approximately 15 feet onto concrete. Based on this mechanism of injury, which injury pattern should you anticipate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Falls from greater than 3 times the patient’s height onto a hard surface = high index of suspicion for spinal, pelvic, and calcaneal fractures.
-
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
74. You respond to a call for a “man down” at a public park. As you approach, you see a middle-aged male lying on the grass near a park bench. Several bystanders are watching but keeping their distance. You notice a small crowd of people pointing and looking nervous. What is your FIRST action before approaching the patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A scene that made someone else “go down” can make you go down too. Always size up before you approach.
-
Question 75 of 100
75. Question
75. When using the “MARCH” algorithm during primary assessment of a trauma patient, what does the “A” represent?
CorrectIncorrectHint
MARCH = Massive hemorrhage, Airway, Respiration, Circulation, Hypothermia/Head injury. Control bleeding first, then airway.
-
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
76. You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision involving a car that struck a utility pole. The driver is unconscious, and the vehicle has a downed power line across the hood. What is your FIRST action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Dead heroes help no one. Downed power lines = stay back and call the fire department.
-
Question 77 of 100
77. Question
77. A patient has a regular heart rate of 52 beats per minute. What is this called?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult HR < 60 = bradycardia. Causes: athlete, medications, hypoxia, heart block, head injury (Cushing's), increased ICP. Assess for symptoms.
-
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
78. A 22-year-old male was ejected from a vehicle during a crash. On your arrival, he is unresponsive to voice but withdraws his right arm when you pinch his left shoulder. He does not open his eyes even to painful stimulus. His breathing is irregular, with a rate of 8 breaths/min. What is his GCS score and immediate priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
GCS ≤ 8 + inadequate respirations = BVM immediately; calculate GCS quickly: Eyes (1-4) + Verbal (1-5) + Motor (1-6).
-
Question 79 of 100
79. Question
79. During a secondary assessment of a patient who fell from a ladder, you palpate the cervical spine and note step-off deformity at the C5 level. The patient reports numbness in both arms but can move his legs. Which statement BEST describes the clinical significance of this finding?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Palpable step-off = vertebral fracture/dislocation until proven otherwise. Maintain spinal precautions and document any neurological findings.
-
Question 80 of 100
80. Question
80. You are staging near a reported explosion at an industrial warehouse. Fire department advises the scene is now safe to enter. Upon approach, you observe structural damage to the building, multiple patients in the parking lot, and one patient partially buried under debris. An approximately 30-year-old male patient was standing approximately 15 feet from the blast origin. He is conscious but confused, with bilateral tympanic membrane rupture, bilateral leg pain, and apparent chest wall bruising. He is unable to stand. Based on this MOI analysis, which injury pattern should you be MOST concerned about that is NOT immediately visible?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Tympanic membrane rupture in a blast patient is the canary in the coal mine—it signals significant blast exposure and warrants aggressive assessment for blast lung.
-
Question 81 of 100
81. Question
81. A 34-year-old male was found unresponsive after a heroin overdose. He has a respiratory rate of 6/min with shallow chest rise. His skin is cyanotic. What is the priority intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Respiratory rate <10 with cyanosis = ventilate first, ask questions later.
-
Question 82 of 100
82. Question
82. A 55-year-old male has severe chest pain. He has a prescription for aspirin but no known allergies. His blood pressure is 140/90. After ensuring adequate oxygenation, what should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chest pain = Aspirin early! 162-325 mg chewed for faster absorption. It reduces mortality in ACS by preventing platelet aggregation.
-
Question 83 of 100
83. Question
83. A patient in cardiac arrest has return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC). What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
ROSC is not the end. Continue support, monitor closely, transport to appropriate facility. Risk of rearrest is real. Maintain airway, oxygen, monitor rhythm.
-
Question 84 of 100
84. Question
84. Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action for glucagon in treating hypoglycemia?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Glucagon = “glucose gone” from liver – it releases stored glucose to raise blood levels.
-
Question 85 of 100
85. Question
85. You are treating a 24-year-old female having an acute asthma exacerbation. She has used her albuterol inhaler three times in the past hour without relief. She is sitting upright, using accessory muscles, and can only speak one or two words at a time. Her SpO2 is 89% on room air. Which finding indicates she is at greatest risk for respiratory failure?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In asthma, the patient who stops wheezing without improvement may be failing – the “silent chest” signals respiratory collapse.
-
Question 86 of 100
86. Question
86. A 34-year-old male was the unrestrained driver in a head-on collision. The vehicle has significant front-end deformity, the steering wheel is bent, and the windshield is starred. What does this mechanism suggest about potential injuries?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Bent steering wheel = chest/abdominal impact; starred windshield = head impact. Multiple indicators = multiple potential injuries.
-
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
87. An EMT responds to a 24-year-old female with abdominal pain. She lives with her boyfriend, who answers most questions for her and won’t leave the room during assessment. The patient appears withdrawn and makes little eye contact. When asked about her last menstrual period, she says, “I’m not sure, maybe a couple months ago.” The boyfriend interrupts, “She’s just irregular.” Which aspect of this interaction should concern the EMT the MOST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Controlling partners, withdrawn patients, and answered-for questions = think intimate partner violence. Find a way to speak privately (e.g., “I need to take her to the ambulance for a better exam”).
-
Question 88 of 100
88. Question
88. You are assessing a 28-year-old construction worker who fell 15 feet. He is sitting against a wall, pink and dry, talking to coworkers. He says his “leg hurts really bad.” What is your initial impression regarding priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
A “not sick” initial impression doesn’t mean “no problem” – it means you have time for a more thorough assessment before deciding on transport priority.
-
Question 89 of 100
89. Question
89. When is it appropriate to use lights and sirens during patient transport?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Lights and sirens = increased collision risk. Use only when minutes matter. Most patients don’t need emergency transport. Arrive alive.
-
Question 90 of 100
90. Question
90. You arrive at a two-vehicle collision on a busy highway. One vehicle is smoking, and fluid is leaking onto the roadway. Traffic is still moving around the crash scene. What should be your FIRST action after parking your ambulance?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Smoking vehicle + leaking fluid = fire and HazMat before patients.
-
Question 91 of 100
91. Question
91. A patient tells you that she is the victim of domestic violence and asks you not to tell anyone. What should you do?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Know your mandatory reporting laws. Domestic violence reporting varies by state. Be honest about your obligations. Provide resources. Document everything. Safety first.
-
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
92. A 22-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is unresponsive when you arrive. His blood glucose is 28 mg/dL. He has a gag reflex but cannot protect his airway. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
No swallowing ability = no oral glucose. Unresponsive patients need ALS for IV dextrose or IM glucagon.
-
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
93. A 45-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle collision. During your primary assessment, you palpate a weak, thready radial pulse of 118 beats per minute. His skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. Based on these findings, what is the minimum estimated systolic blood pressure?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Radial pulse present = SBP ≥80 mmHg; Femoral pulse present = SBP ≥70 mmHg; Carotid pulse present = SBP ≥60 mmHg.
-
Question 94 of 100
94. Question
94. When performing rescue breathing for an adult patient with a pulse but no breathing, what is the correct rate and volume of ventilations?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Rescue breathing for adults: one breath every 5-6 seconds (10-12/min), one second per breath, just enough to see the chest rise.
-
Question 95 of 100
95. Question
95. You are called to a restaurant where a 34-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation suddenly collapsed. Upon arrival, she is supine on the floor, diaphoretic, with a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg and heart rate of 110 bpm. She is confused. Which of the following BEST explains her condition and the appropriate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
“Third-trimester and supine = compressed vena cava; left lateral position is the cure.”
-
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
96. A patient with an obvious emergency condition tells you she cannot afford to go to the hospital. What is the MOST appropriate response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
EMTALA: Emergency care regardless of ability to pay. Explain this to patients. Document concerns. Financial barriers shouldn’t prevent emergency care.
-
Question 97 of 100
97. Question
97. During primary assessment of an unresponsive adult patient, you observe that the patient has gurgling respirations. What is your immediate priority action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Gurgling = fluid in the airway. Suction immediately before the patient aspirates. Clear the path before anything else.
-
Question 98 of 100
98. Question
98. A 68-year-old female with a history of congestive heart failure presents with difficulty breathing. She has pink, frothy sputum, distended neck veins, and crackles heard in both lung bases. Which condition is MOST likely causing her symptoms?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pink and frothy means fluid is crossing over – think pulmonary edema from heart failure.
-
Question 99 of 100
99. Question
99. At a nursing home, you are called for an 82-year-old male with altered mental status. The staff reports he was normal at breakfast but is now unresponsive. His skin is pale, cool, and dry. Blood glucose is 180 mg/dL. He has a history of diabetes and atrial fibrillation. Which condition should be your PRIMARY concern for immediate intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Sudden altered mental status + atrial fibrillation = think stroke until proven otherwise. Time-critical transport to stroke center is the priority.
-
Question 100 of 100
100. Question
100. You are assessing a 55-year-old male who called 911 for chest pain. During your primary assessment, you note: blood pressure 88/52 mmHg, heart rate 118 bpm, respiratory rate 24, SpO2 92% on room air, and pale, diaphoretic skin. He reports the pain began 30 minutes ago and describes it as “crushing” pressure radiating to his left arm. What findings qualify this patient as a priority?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chest pain + hypotension + tachycardia + diaphoresis = cardiogenic shock until proven otherwise – this is a load-and-go patient.
📚 More Full Practice Tests Practice: