Welcome to Part 2 of our Patient Treatment and Transport practice test series! This section focuses on advanced patient care scenarios, building on foundational knowledge to help you refine your clinical judgment. As Part 2 of 5 in this domain, each quiz brings you closer to exam readiness.
Key Topics Covered:
– Trauma assessments and interventions
– Obstetric and pediatric emergencies
– Environmental and toxicological emergencies
– Airway management techniques
– Patient stabilization during transport
For optimal study, review the latest EMT guidelines and practice applying protocols to real-world case studies. Focus on understanding the “why” behind each step—not just memorization.
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
1. What is the appropriate flow rate range for a nasal cannula when administering oxygen to a patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Nasal cannula = 1-6 LPM, 24-44% O2 – best for mild hypoxia and patient comfort during transport.
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
2. A 68-year-old female complains of mild shortness of breath after climbing stairs. Her SpO2 is 92% on room air, and she has clear lung sounds bilaterally. She has no history of COPD. Which oxygen delivery device is MOST appropriate for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Match the oxygen device to the severity: mild hypoxia = cannula, moderate = simple mask, severe = non-rebreather, failure/arrest = BVM.
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
3. A 72-year-old male with a history of severe COPD presents with increasing shortness of breath. His SpO2 is 88% on room air. He appears anxious and is using accessory muscles. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate oxygen administration strategy?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In COPD, never withhold oxygen from a hypoxic patient – start low (2 LPM), titrate to SpO2 88-92%, and monitor mental status and respiratory effort.
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
4. You are treating a 34-year-old male who was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He has an open femur fracture with significant bleeding, is pale and diaphoretic, and has a SpO2 of 94% on room air. His respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute. What is the MOST appropriate oxygen intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In trauma, treat the patient, not the number: signs of shock = high-flow oxygen, even with “normal” SpO2.
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
5. You are called to a residence for a 56-year-old male with difficulty breathing. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting in a tripod position, audibly wheezing, with SpO2 of 86% on room air. He is alert but unable to speak in full sentences, answering with only one or two words. His respiratory rate is 32, and you note significant use of accessory muscles. After initiating high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask, his SpO2 increases to 90%, but his mental status begins to decline, and he appears increasingly fatigued. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate next intervention?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In respiratory distress, declining mental status despite oxygen therapy = imminent respiratory failure = prepare for positive pressure ventilation.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
6. A 28-year-old female was rescued from an apartment fire. She is conscious and coughing but has singed nasal hairs and carbonaceous sputum. Her SpO2 reads 92% on room air, and she has first-degree burns on her face and neck. Which oxygen delivery device should be applied FIRST?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Fire + singed nasal hairs/carbonaceous sputum = think carbon monoxide poisoning = high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather immediately.
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
7. When ventilating an apneic adult patient with a bag-valve mask, what is the appropriate ventilation rate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult BVM ventilation: 12-20 breaths/minute (one breath every 3-5 seconds) – squeeze, release, watch for chest rise.
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
8. A 45-year-old male complains of chest pain that started 20 minutes ago. He describes it as “pressure” in the center of his chest. His vital signs are: BP 148/92, pulse 98, respiratory rate 18, SpO2 96% on room air. He has no respiratory distress and clear lung sounds. What is the MOST appropriate oxygen administration for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Suspected cardiac chest pain = supplemental oxygen via cannula, even with normal SpO2 – support the struggling heart.
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
9. You are treating a 62-year-old male who fell 15 feet from a ladder. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. His breathing is labored with sonorous respirations at 8 breaths per minute. You note significant bruising to the right side of his head and deformity to his right arm. His SpO2 is 88% on room air. After opening his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver, his breathing improves slightly but remains inadequate. What is the MOST appropriate sequence of interventions?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Unresponsive trauma patient + inadequate breathing = suction → airway adjunct → BVM ventilation, all while maintaining spinal precautions.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
10. You are first on scene of a cardiac arrest. A 55-year-old male is pulseless and apneic. You begin CPR and your partner prepares the AED. Your service protocols allow for a supraglottic airway device. Your partner asks whether they should insert the supraglottic airway immediately or wait until after the first AED analysis. Which approach is CORRECT and why?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cardiac arrest priorities: CPR first → AED analyze ASAP → airway after first shock/analysis. Minimize compression interruptions.
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Question 11 of 50
11. Question
11. What is the correct dose and concentration of epinephrine for an adult patient (>30 kg) when administered via auto-injector for anaphylaxis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Adult auto-injector = 0.3 mg; Pediatric auto-injector = 0.15 mg. Both use 1:1000 concentration for IM injection.
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
12. Why is epinephrine administered intramuscularly (IM) rather than subcutaneously (SC) during anaphylaxis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In anaphylaxis, IM beats SC – muscle has better blood flow than skin when shock threatens.
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
13. A 35-year-old male is experiencing anaphylaxis after a bee sting. He is conscious but has significant facial swelling, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. His BP is 88/54 mmHg. You have an adult epinephrine auto-injector available. After administering the medication, how long should you hold the auto-injector in place?
CorrectIncorrectHint
3-10 seconds hold time – long enough for complete delivery, short enough to move on to other care.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
14. A 7-year-old child weighing 22 kg (48 lbs) is experiencing anaphylaxis after eating a peanut butter cookie. The parent hands you two epinephrine auto-injectors: one labeled “0.15 mg” and one labeled “0.3 mg.” Which auto-injector should you use?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pediatric auto-injector (0.15 mg) = 15-30 kg; Adult auto-injector (0.3 mg) = >30 kg. Weight determines dose.
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
15. You have just administered epinephrine to a 28-year-old woman experiencing anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings would indicate a POSITIVE response to the medication?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Look for the three Bs: Better Breathing, Better BP, less Body swelling – that’s epinephrine doing its job.
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
16. What is the primary mechanism of action of epinephrine that makes it the drug of choice for anaphylaxis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Epinephrine is a physiological firefighter – it opens airways (beta-2) and raises blood pressure (alpha) simultaneously.
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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
17. A patient with anaphylaxis receives epinephrine from an auto-injector. After 8 minutes, his symptoms have not improved. What is the appropriate action regarding additional epinephrine administration?
CorrectIncorrectHint
No improvement in 5-15 minutes? A second dose is on the table – but reassess first.
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
18. You are called to a local park for a 42-year-old man who was stung by multiple wasps. On arrival, you find him sitting on a bench, appearing anxious. He has diffuse hives on his arms and trunk, his face appears swollen, and he states his “throat feels tight.” He has audible stridor when breathing. His blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, pulse is 118 bpm, and respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min with labored effort. The patient’s wife states he has a history of severe allergic reactions and hands you an epinephrine auto-injector from his emergency kit. After administering the epinephrine, what should you do immediately?
CorrectIncorrectHint
After epinephrine: massage the site, reassess ABCs, and get moving – anaphylaxis isn’t over until you’re at the ED.
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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
19. A 55-year-old woman with known cardiac history develops anaphylaxis after receiving IV contrast during a CT scan at an outpatient imaging center. She is conscious but severely distressed with widespread hives, tongue swelling, wheezing, and a blood pressure of 76/42 mmHg. The imaging center nurse asks if she should administer the patient’s cardiac medication (a beta-blocker) for her racing heart. What is the most appropriate response?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Beta-blockers are kryptonite to epinephrine in anaphylaxis – they can block the rescue drug’s lifesaving effects.
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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
20. You respond to a restaurant for a 16-year-old male who accidentally ate food containing peanuts. His friend states the patient is allergic to peanuts but didn’t have his epinephrine auto-injector with him. The patient is alert but anxious, with mild lip swelling and a few hives on his neck. His voice sounds normal, he denies throat tightness or difficulty breathing, his lungs are clear, and his vital signs are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate action regarding epinephrine administration?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In confirmed nut/peanut allergy with any active symptoms, think twice about waiting – early epinephrine beats late epinephrine every time.
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
21. What is the normal fasting blood glucose level range for an adult patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Remember “70-110 is heaven” – normal fasting glucose range for quick recall during assessments.
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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
22. A 58-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes is found confused and diaphoretic in his home. His family states he skipped breakfast and took his insulin this morning. His blood glucose reads 45 mg/dL. Which condition is most likely causing his presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Insulin without food = hypoglycemia risk. Always assess meal timing when evaluating diabetic emergencies.
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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
23. You are assessing a 45-year-old female with diabetes who presents with altered mental status. Her blood glucose is 38 mg/dL, and she is able to follow simple commands but has difficulty speaking clearly. What is the MOST appropriate initial treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Oral glucose goes between cheek and gum – not swallowed – making it safer for patients with mild swallowing difficulties.
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Question 24 of 50
24. Question
24. A 22-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is unresponsive when you arrive. His blood glucose is 28 mg/dL. He has a gag reflex but cannot protect his airway. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?
CorrectIncorrectHint
No swallowing ability = no oral glucose. Unresponsive patients need ALS for IV dextrose or IM glucagon.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
25. You respond to a 67-year-old female with altered mental status. Family reports she has had flu-like symptoms for three days with decreased appetite. Vital signs reveal deep, rapid breathing and a fruity odor on her breath. Her blood glucose reads 485 mg/dL. Which condition should you suspect?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Fruity breath + Kussmaul breathing = DKA until proven otherwise. Think ketones!
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
26. A 52-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes is found unresponsive in his vehicle. His wife reports he seemed confused and irritable earlier in the day but refused to eat. On assessment, you note pale, cool, diaphoretic skin; a rapid, weak pulse; and blood glucose of 32 mg/dL. Which pathophysiological process BEST explains his deterioration from confusion to unresponsiveness?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The brain runs on glucose only – no backup fuel. That’s why hypoglycemia causes rapid mental status decline.
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
27. You are treating two diabetic patients simultaneously. Patient A has blood glucose of 52 mg/dL with cool, clammy skin and confusion that developed over 30 minutes. Patient B has blood glucose of 425 mg/dL with warm, dry skin, Kussmaul respirations, and confusion that developed over 2 days. Based on the pathophysiology of each condition, which statement BEST explains the difference in their skin presentations?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hypoglycemia = sympathetic surge = cool/clammy. Hyperglycemia = dehydration = warm/dry. Let skin guide your diagnosis!
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
28. A 34-year-old female with diabetes is conscious but exhibits slurred speech and unsteady gait. Her roommate states the patient has been drinking alcohol at a party. Blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. What is the MOST appropriate action?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Alcohol = hypoglycemia risk! It blocks liver glucose production. Always check blood glucose in intoxicated diabetics.
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
29. A 19-year-old female with type 1 diabetes called 911 for weakness and confusion. On arrival, she is alert but disoriented to time and place. Her roommate reports she has been studying for finals and hasn’t eaten in 8 hours. Blood glucose is 48 mg/dL. After administering oral glucose, her mental status improves within 10 minutes. What mechanism BEST explains her rapid improvement?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Brain cells starved of glucose = confusion. Feed them = rapid recovery. It’s that simple.
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
30. What is the correct dose and route for oral glucose administration in an adult patient with suspected hypoglycemia who can swallow safely?
CorrectIncorrectHint
One tube = 15-30 grams. Between cheek and gum. Simple, safe, effective.
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
31. Which of the following is an indication for spinal motion restriction (SMR) in a trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Remember the SMR indications with significant MOI: altered mental status, neurological deficit, spinal pain/tenderness, intoxication, or distracting injury.
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
32. An EMT selects a cervical collar that is too large for a patient. What is the potential consequence of this error?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Too large = hyperextension; too small = inadequate support. Always measure chin-to-shoulder distance for proper collar sizing.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
33. A 22-year-old football player is found unresponsive after a helmet-to-helmet collision during practice. He is not breathing and has no pulse. He is wearing a properly fitted football helmet with a face shield. What is the most appropriate action regarding his helmet?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Remove helmets when they interfere with airway management, CPR, or proper immobilization—always use a two-rescuer technique.
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
34. A 45-year-old male was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is alert and oriented, denies neck or back pain, and has no tenderness on palpation of the spine. However, he has an obvious deformity to his right femur. What is the most appropriate action regarding spinal motion restriction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Distracting injuries (significant fractures, burns, severe pain) can mask spinal symptoms—when in doubt, immobilize.
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
35. Which of the following is currently considered the preferred device for spinal motion restriction during transport of a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Vacuum mattresses are preferred for transport; long boards should be minimized to reduce pressure injury risk.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
36. A 30-year-old female fell from a second-story window. She is conscious but agitated and smells of alcohol. She has a 3-inch laceration on her forehead and complains of pain in her right ankle. She repeatedly states she is “fine” and wants to refuse transport. The EMT notes that the patient’s speech is slurred. Which finding is most concerning regarding the decision to implement spinal motion restriction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Altered mental status (including from intoxication) with significant MOI requires SMR—never assume intoxication alone explains mental status changes after trauma.
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
37. A 55-year-old male was the unrestrained driver in a moderate-speed motor vehicle collision. The vehicle sustained significant front-end damage, and the steering column is bent. The patient is alert and oriented, complaining of mild neck pain and pain in his left wrist, which has an obvious deformity. He states he “hit the steering wheel hard.” His vital signs are stable. Which finding would most strongly indicate the need for spinal motion restriction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Mechanism of injury plus spinal pain = SMR. Document the mechanism but act on the clinical findings.
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
38. An EMT responds to a patient who fell down a flight of stairs. The patient is complaining of back pain and has visible bruising along the spine. During initial assessment, the EMT notes the patient’s cervical collar has been removed by a well-meaning family member who stated, “It was hurting his neck.” The patient is now sitting up and moving his head. What is the most appropriate analysis of this situation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Never remove cervical collars before spinal clearance—and educate bystanders that discomfort doesn’t justify removal.
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
39. An EMT is preparing to apply a cervical collar to a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. When measuring for collar size, the EMT should measure from which anatomical landmarks?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Chin tip to shoulder top—measure vertically to ensure neutral alignment.
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
40. A patient presents with a significant mechanism of injury but has no spinal pain, no tenderness on palpation, is alert and oriented, has no neurological deficits, and has no evidence of intoxication. Which additional finding would still indicate the need for spinal motion restriction?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Distracting injuries stand alone as an indication for SMR—a patient can meet all other clearance criteria but still require SMR if a distracting injury is present.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
41. Which of the following is the most common atypical presentation of acute myocardial infarction in geriatric patients?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric patients, assume “confusion = cardiac” until proven otherwise – altered mental status may be the only sign of a life-threatening MI.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
42. A 78-year-old female fell in her bathroom and has a 3 cm laceration on her forehead. Her daughter states she takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which pathophysiologic mechanism most significantly increases this patient’s risk of serious injury?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Any geriatric patient on anticoagulants with head trauma gets a thorough assessment and transport recommendation – even with a “minor” mechanism, the bleeding risk is significant.
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
43. You are called to a skilled nursing facility for an 82-year-old male who fell while transferring from his wheelchair to his bed. He has a 5 cm hematoma on his left hip and reports pain with movement. Staff reports he takes apixaban (Eliquis) and metoprolol. Vital signs are: BP 138/84, HR 72, RR 18, SpO2 95% on room air. Which aspect of this presentation requires the most immediate consideration in your assessment and transport decision?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In anticoagulated geriatric patients, the absence of hemodynamic instability doesn’t rule out significant bleeding – their bleeding may be ongoing and concealed.
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
44. You respond to a private residence for a 76-year-old male with “weakness.” On arrival, you find the patient sitting in a recliner, appearing fatigued. His wife states he has been “not himself” for two days, sleeping more, refusing to eat, and seeming confused about what day it is. He has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease. Vital signs are: BP 102/58, HR 98, RR 22, SpO2 91% on room air, temperature 97.2°F (36.2°C). The patient denies any pain or discomfort. Based on this presentation, which interpretation best explains the clinical picture?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In geriatric patients, “not feeling well” with altered mental status and hypothermia IS sepsis until proven otherwise – don’t wait for fever that may never come.
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
45. You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision involving a 32-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She was a restrained driver in a moderate-speed collision. She is complaining of mild abdominal discomfort but has no visible injuries. Which assessment finding would be most concerning for placental abruption?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In pregnant trauma patients, the absence of immediate bleeding doesn’t mean no abruption – delayed dark bleeding is a red flag that demands urgent transport.
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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
46. An 81-year-old woman is found by her daughter lying on the kitchen floor, unable to get up. She states she thinks she fell about 6 hours ago while getting a glass of water. She denies loss of consciousness but says she felt “dizzy” before falling. Her medication list includes: lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, metoprolol, warfarin, and oxybutynin. Vital signs are: BP 94/62, HR 58, RR 16, SpO2 94% on room air. Which combination of factors from this scenario most significantly increases her risk of recurrent falls?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When an elderly patient falls, count the medications – beta-blockers, anticholinergics, diuretics, and antihypertensives are the “fall cocktail.”
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Question 47 of 50
47. Question
47. You respond to an assisted living facility for a 79-year-old woman with “difficulty breathing.” Upon arrival, the facility director greets you at the door and seems unusually anxious to have you evaluate the patient quickly. The patient is in bed, appears thin and frail with multiple ecchymoses in various stages of healing on her arms and upper back. She has a small, healing laceration on her lip. When you ask what happened, she looks fearfully at the facility director before quietly saying, “I fell.” Her vital signs show mild tachycardia but are otherwise stable. She has no acute respiratory distress. Which action is most appropriate for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
When injuries don’t match the story AND the patient looks at someone fearfully before answering – remove that person from the room and ask what really happened.
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
48. You are caring for an unresponsive 2-year-old male who was found by his mother after an unknown period of time. He has a pulse of 70/min and respiratory rate of 6/min with shallow, irregular breathing. His skin is pale and cool. What is the most appropriate initial airway management for this patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In pediatric bradycardia with poor perfusion, think respiratory failure first – fix the breathing and the heart rate often follows.
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
49. A 74-year-old male with a history of heart failure and COPD presents with increasing shortness of breath over the past 3 days. He lives alone in an apartment with minimal heating during winter. His oral temperature is 94.8°F (34.9°C), and his skin feels cool to touch. He denies feeling cold and reports he “just hasn’t been feeling right.” Which age-related change best explains why this patient may not recognize or respond appropriately to hypothermia?
CorrectIncorrectHint
An elderly patient in a cold environment with low-normal body temperature who “doesn’t feel cold” is demonstrating thermoregulatory failure – they ARE hypothermic, regardless of what they report feeling.
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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
50. Which of the following medication classes is most likely to mask the typical tachycardic response to hemorrhagic shock in an elderly trauma patient?
CorrectIncorrectHint
On beta-blockers and bleeding? Don’t trust the heart rate – look for other signs of shock: hypotension, altered mental status, pale cool skin, delayed capillary refill.
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